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HESI LPN Exit Exam 2025 – COMPLETE
QUESTIONS WITH CORRECT DETAILED
ANSWERS || 100% GUARANTEED PASS <BRAND
NEW VERSION>
1. A patient is experiencing chest pain radiating to the left arm. Which
diagnostic marker is the most specific for confirming an acute myocardial
infarction?
A. CK-MB
B. Troponin I
C. LDH
D. AST
Correct Answer: B. Troponin I
Explanation: Troponin I is the most specific and sensitive cardiac biomarker for
myocardial infarction, detectable within hours of the event and remaining elevated
for several days.
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2. Which of the following is a priority nursing intervention for a client
diagnosed with right-sided heart failure?
A. Position the client in high Fowler’s
B. Encourage fluid intake
C. Place the client in dorsal recumbent position
D. Increase dietary sodium intake
Correct Answer: C. Place the client in dorsal recumbent position
Explanation: The dorsal recumbent position (lying on the back with knees bent)
facilitates better venous return in right-sided heart failure.
3. What classification of heart failure describes a patient who experiences
symptoms even at rest?
A. Class I
B. Class II
C. Class III
D. Class IV
Correct Answer: D. Class IV
Explanation: Class IV of the New York Heart Association classification indicates
symptoms present even at rest.
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4. Which medication is indicated to treat dysrhythmias following a myocardial
infarction?
A. Digoxin
B. Lidocaine
C. Enoxaparin
D. Warfarin
Correct Answer: B. Lidocaine
Explanation: Lidocaine is commonly used to treat ventricular dysrhythmias
associated with acute myocardial infarction.
5. Which position best reduces the oxygen demand in a patient with heart
failure who is on complete bed rest?
A. Trendelenburg
B. Supine
C. 45° Fowler’s
D. Prone
Correct Answer: C. 45° Fowler’s
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Explanation: Elevating the head of the bed to 45 degrees decreases myocardial
oxygen demand and promotes effective breathing.
6. A patient has ineffective tissue perfusion due to chronic arterial
insufficiency. Which condition most likely contributes to this?
A. Raynaud’s disease
B. Right-sided heart failure
C. Venous thrombosis
D. Pericarditis
Correct Answer: A. Raynaud’s disease
Explanation: Raynaud’s disease causes vasoconstriction and poor arterial blood
flow, contributing to chronic arterial insufficiency.
7. A client with hemophilia A is deficient in which clotting factor?
A. Factor V
B. Factor VIII
C. Factor IX
D. Factor X
HESI LPN Exit Exam 2025 – COMPLETE
QUESTIONS WITH CORRECT DETAILED
ANSWERS || 100% GUARANTEED PASS <BRAND
NEW VERSION>
1. A patient is experiencing chest pain radiating to the left arm. Which
diagnostic marker is the most specific for confirming an acute myocardial
infarction?
A. CK-MB
B. Troponin I
C. LDH
D. AST
Correct Answer: B. Troponin I
Explanation: Troponin I is the most specific and sensitive cardiac biomarker for
myocardial infarction, detectable within hours of the event and remaining elevated
for several days.
, 2
2. Which of the following is a priority nursing intervention for a client
diagnosed with right-sided heart failure?
A. Position the client in high Fowler’s
B. Encourage fluid intake
C. Place the client in dorsal recumbent position
D. Increase dietary sodium intake
Correct Answer: C. Place the client in dorsal recumbent position
Explanation: The dorsal recumbent position (lying on the back with knees bent)
facilitates better venous return in right-sided heart failure.
3. What classification of heart failure describes a patient who experiences
symptoms even at rest?
A. Class I
B. Class II
C. Class III
D. Class IV
Correct Answer: D. Class IV
Explanation: Class IV of the New York Heart Association classification indicates
symptoms present even at rest.
, 3
4. Which medication is indicated to treat dysrhythmias following a myocardial
infarction?
A. Digoxin
B. Lidocaine
C. Enoxaparin
D. Warfarin
Correct Answer: B. Lidocaine
Explanation: Lidocaine is commonly used to treat ventricular dysrhythmias
associated with acute myocardial infarction.
5. Which position best reduces the oxygen demand in a patient with heart
failure who is on complete bed rest?
A. Trendelenburg
B. Supine
C. 45° Fowler’s
D. Prone
Correct Answer: C. 45° Fowler’s
, 4
Explanation: Elevating the head of the bed to 45 degrees decreases myocardial
oxygen demand and promotes effective breathing.
6. A patient has ineffective tissue perfusion due to chronic arterial
insufficiency. Which condition most likely contributes to this?
A. Raynaud’s disease
B. Right-sided heart failure
C. Venous thrombosis
D. Pericarditis
Correct Answer: A. Raynaud’s disease
Explanation: Raynaud’s disease causes vasoconstriction and poor arterial blood
flow, contributing to chronic arterial insufficiency.
7. A client with hemophilia A is deficient in which clotting factor?
A. Factor V
B. Factor VIII
C. Factor IX
D. Factor X
