Test Bank: WGU D116 Advanced Pharmacology OA Exam 2025 – Versions 1, 2 & 3 |Fully Updated Questions with Verified Answers & Rationales | A+ Certified

Test Bank: WGU D116 Advanced Pharmacology OA Exam
2025 – Versions 1, 2 & 3 | Fully Updated Questions with
Verified Answers & Rationales | A+ Certified



Version 1 (40 Questions)
Cardiovascular Medications (7 Questions)

Question 1: A patient with heart failure is prescribed lisinopril. What is the mechanism of action
of this medication?
A) Inhibits sodium-potassium ATPase
B) Inhibits angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE)
C) Blocks beta-adrenergic receptors
D) Inhibits HMG-CoA reductase
Answer: B) Inhibits angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE)
Rationale: Lisinopril, an ACE inhibitor, blocks the conversion of angiotensin I to angiotensin II,
decreasing vasoconstriction and aldosterone release, thus reducing blood pressure and cardiac
workload.

Question 2: A patient on warfarin reports bleeding gums. What is the nurse’s priority action?
A) Administer protamine sulfate
B) Assess INR and notify the healthcare provider
C) Increase the warfarin dose
D) Administer naloxone
Answer: B) Assess INR and notify the healthcare provider
Rationale: Bleeding gums may indicate excessive anticoagulation; INR monitoring ensures
therapeutic levels (2–3 for most indications) and guides dose adjustment or antidote use (e.g.,
vitamin K).

Question 3: A patient with hypertension is prescribed metoprolol. What should the nurse
monitor before administration?
A) Blood glucose levels
B) Heart rate and blood pressure
C) Serum potassium levels
D) Liver function tests
Answer: B) Heart rate and blood pressure
Rationale: Metoprolol, a beta-blocker, reduces heart rate and blood pressure; monitoring
prevents bradycardia or hypotension.

Question 4: Why is furosemide commonly prescribed for heart failure?
A) To increase cardiac contractility

,B) To reduce fluid overload and preload
C) To block calcium channels
D) To prevent platelet aggregation
Answer: B) To reduce fluid overload and preload
Rationale: Furosemide, a loop diuretic, promotes diuresis, decreasing fluid volume and cardiac
workload in heart failure.

Question 5: A patient on heparin develops signs of active bleeding. What is the antidote?
A) Vitamin K
B) Protamine sulfate
C) Digoxin immune fab
D) Naloxone
Answer: B) Protamine sulfate
Rationale: Protamine sulfate neutralizes heparin’s anticoagulant effect by binding to it, reversing
bleeding in heparin overdose.

Question 6: A patient with atrial fibrillation is prescribed amiodarone. What is a key adverse
effect to monitor?
A) Pulmonary toxicity
B) Hyperglycemia
C) Tendon rupture
D) Seizures
Answer: A) Pulmonary toxicity
Rationale: Amiodarone can cause pulmonary fibrosis, a serious adverse effect, requiring regular
monitoring of respiratory symptoms and lung function.

Question 7: What is the therapeutic use of nitroglycerin in angina?
A) Blocks sodium channels
B) Increases heart rate
C) Vasodilation to relieve chest pain
D) Inhibits cholesterol synthesis
Answer: C) Vasodilation to relieve chest pain
Rationale: Nitroglycerin, a nitrate, dilates coronary arteries and veins, increasing myocardial
oxygen supply and reducing preload to alleviate angina.

Endocrine/Diabetes Medications (7 Questions)

Question 8: A patient with type 1 diabetes is prescribed insulin lispro. When should it be
administered?
A) Once daily at bedtime
B) Immediately before or after meals
C) Every 12 hours
D) Only during hyperglycemic episodes
Answer: B) Immediately before or after meals
Rationale: Lispro, a rapid-acting insulin, has an onset of 15–30 minutes and is timed with meals
to control postprandial glucose spikes.

, Question 9: A patient on metformin reports gastrointestinal upset. What is the nurse’s best
response?
A) Discontinue the medication
B) Take it on an empty stomach
C) Advise taking it with meals and titrating the dose slowly
D) Switch to insulin immediately
Answer: C) Advise taking it with meals and titrating the dose slowly
Rationale: Metformin commonly causes GI side effects; taking it with food and gradual dose
escalation minimize discomfort.

Question 10: What is the primary action of levothyroxine in hypothyroidism?
A) Stimulates insulin release
B) Replaces thyroid hormone to restore metabolic function
C) Inhibits glucagon secretion
D) Blocks cortisol production
Answer: B) Replaces thyroid hormone to restore metabolic function
Rationale: Levothyroxine (T4) mimics endogenous thyroid hormone, normalizing metabolism in
hypothyroidism.

Question 11: A patient with type 2 diabetes is prescribed glipizide. What is a key teaching
point?
A) Monitor for hyperglycemia
B) Monitor for hypoglycemia
C) Avoid carbohydrates completely
D) Take at bedtime only
Answer: B) Monitor for hypoglycemia
Rationale: Glipizide, a sulfonylurea, stimulates insulin release, increasing the risk of
hypoglycemia, especially if meals are skipped.

Question 12: Why is desmopressin prescribed for diabetes insipidus?
A) To increase blood glucose levels
B) To reduce excessive urination by mimicking antidiuretic hormone
C) To stimulate thyroid hormone production
D) To enhance insulin sensitivity
Answer: B) To reduce excessive urination by mimicking antidiuretic hormone
Rationale: Desmopressin, a synthetic ADH analog, promotes water reabsorption in the kidneys,
reducing polyuria.

Question 13: A patient on insulin glargine asks why it is given at bedtime. What is the nurse’s
response?
A) It prevents morning hyperglycemia
B) It provides steady, long-acting glucose control overnight
C) It reduces gastrointestinal side effects
D) It enhances daytime activity
Answer: B) It provides steady, long-acting glucose control overnight