Hartman Phlebotomy Final Exam Study Guide 2025/2026 Complete Questions With Correct Detailed Answers || 100% Guaranteed Pass Brand New Version

HARTMAN PHLEBOTOMY FINAL EXAM STUDY GUIDE 2025/2026 COMPLETE QUESTIONS WITH CORRECT DETAILED ANSWERS || 100% GUARANTEED PASS BRAND NEW VERSION 1. What is the difference between a microorganism and a microbe? - ANSWER They are the same thing 2. OSHA's recommendation that biomedical waste be properly discarded at the point of origin means - ANSWER There should be an appropriate container in every location where biomedical waste is created. 3. How is a healthcare worker most likely to be exposed by a bloodborne disease? - ANSWER By contact with infected blood or body fluids 4. what are the four categories of hazards OSHA has identified in laboratory settings. - ANSWER chemical, biological, physical, and safety 5. Which of the following is an example of a biological hazard? - ANSWER Exposure to bloodborne pathogens 6. which of the following explains why fires are of particular concern in a laboratory? - ANSWER Laboratories are often stocked with flammable substances. 7. The condition in which the body's systems are working together to maintain health and stability is known as - ANSWER Homeostasis 8. The main function of the muscles is to - ANSWER Direct and coordinate the movement of the body 9. This gland is also known as the "master gland" - ANSWER pituitary gland 10. The valves of the heart function to - ANSWER Keep blood flowing in the correct direction through the heart. 11. Which of the following parts of the body is associated with the creation of blood cells? - ANSWER bone marrow 12. What color is venous blood? - ANSWER Deep, Dark, red 13. When is a blood not collected in a tube? - ANSWER Through a test strip (glucose) 14. A needle with a larger gauge number is - ANSWER narrower/ thinner than one with a smaller gauge number 15. List The order of draw - ANSWER Blood Cultures (yellow) / Sodium Citrate (light blue) / Serum (red or tiger top) / Heparin (green) / EDTA (lavender) / Glucose (gray) 16. What is a complication of extended tourniquet use - ANSWER Hemoconcentration 17. What kind of needle movement is allowed if blood flow is not established after needle insertion - ANSWER Gentle forward and backward movement 18. How long after collection should most blood specimens be centrifuged - ANSWER Within two hours 19. What is the name of the infection that may be caused if a lancet strikes bone? - ANSWER osteomyelitis 20. What usually happens to the first drop of blood in a capillary collection? - ANSWER It's wiped away 21. Compared to the job growth predicted for most other positions, jobs growth for phlebotomy technicians is ? - ANSWER Higher (more jobs) 22. What do increases in the number of elderly people in the population mean for healthcare? - ANSWER There are more jobs because these patients are in particular need of care 23. What usually happens after a patient is seen in an emergency department (ED) ? - ANSWER The patient is either treated and discharged or admitted to the hospital for treatment 24. Where do patients receive inpatient care? - ANSWER hospital  what do clinical laboratories all have in common? - ANSWER They collect and analyze specimens from patients 25. Which of the following is a list of some common departments of within a clinical laboratory? - ANSWER Chemistry, hematology, microbiology, immunology 26. What is the name for a legally required process for that must be completed to practice a medical profession in a state ? - ANSWER Licensure 27. The primary role of a PBT is to ? - ANSWER Collect and process blood specimens 28. Dermal punture may also be called ? - ANSWER Capillary punture 29. The requirement that PBTs only collect blood for tests ordered through a facility's requisition process is an example of ? - ANSWER Policy 30. What is a blown vein ? - ANSWER A vein that a needle has passed completely through 31. A _________ tube is acceptable as a discard tube. - ANSWER Light blue topped 32. A winged collection set is discarded - ANSWER as a single unit 33. How is blood removed moved from the barrel of a syringe to collection tubes - ANSWER Using a safe transfer device 34. QNS stands for - ANSWER Quantity non-sufficient 35. The test is routinely performed during pregnancy - ANSWER Glucose challenge test 36. What time listed below is a common amount of time for centrifugation of a standard specimen tube ? - ANSWER 15 minutes 37. What must happen before a serum specimen is centrifuged ? - ANSWER The specimen must be allowed to clot 38. Which of these methods is best for keeping a specimen cold - ANSWER Place it in a mixture of crushed ice and water 39. Blood is tested for the presence of bacteria by performing a - ANSWER blood culture 40. Preanalytical errors take place - ANSWER Before testing is performed on a specimen 41. A PBT can cause pre-analytical errors by - ANSWER Filling collection tubes in the wrong order 42. Collection tubes for capillary puncture usually have a volume of ? - ANSWER 0.125 to 6.6 micro liters 43. The substances studied in blood test are called - ANSWER Analytes 44. Glycolysis is prevented by the addictive - ANSWER Sodium fluoride 45. A red-topped tube is often used for ______ tests. - ANSWER serology 46. For capillary punctures , Where in the order of draw do EDTA tubes fall ? - ANSWER Second 47. What is the name of the infection that may be caused if a lancet hits bone? - ANSWER osteomyelitis 48. Which of the following is true regarding Lancet hits bone? - ANSWER It is best to use the highest flow lancet available to ensure getting enough blood every time 49. The first drop of blood that forms following a skin puncture should be -- - ANSWER wiped away for every test 50. If no blood gas test are ordered, which type of tube is filled first for capillary collection ? - ANSWER EDTA tubes 51. How long should a capillary site be warmed? - ANSWER 3-5 minutes 52. A blade-style lancet should be positioned to cut __________ to the patients fingerprints. - ANSWER perpendicular 53. To ensure a high quality specimen , do not ________ the collection device on the patients skin or ____ the patients finger - ANSWER Scrape, "milk" 54. Why is newborn metabolic screening performed - ANSWER Because these illness can be treated successfully in infancy 55. What common laboratory equipment can be used to create a peripheral blood smear ? - ANSWER Two microscope slides 56. When should a PBT conducting point-of-care PT/INR testing make recommendations regarding a patients warfarin dose ? - ANSWER This is beyond the PBT's scope of practice. 57. Which of the following is true of quality control checks in point-of-care testing devices - ANSWER They are performed by nurses only 58. Deoxygenated blood moves from the _________ to the ____________to receive oxygen - ANSWER Lungs, hearts 59. The upper chambers of the heart are called the - ANSWER atria 60. What is conducted by the networks of specialized tissue in the cardiac conduction system - ANSWER Electrical impulses 61. Exchanges oxygen and carbon dioxide and of nutrients and waste take place in areas called ? - ANSWER Purkinje fibers 62. Systemic circulation carries blood - ANSWER throughout the body 63. Found elements make up ______ just under a half - ANSWER Just under a half 64. Which type of blood cell is the most common among the formed elements - ANSWER erythrocytes 65. B and T cells are varieties of - ANSWER Lymphocytes 66. Blood types are classified as? - ANSWER A, B, AB, O 67. A person who has A-blood has - ANSWER A antigen, anti-B antibodies & RH factor 68. Which of these orders correctly lists blood color from brightest to darkest red - ANSWER Arterial blood, capillary blood, arterial blood 69. What devices may be used to create a pulling force on venous blood during a blood draw? - ANSWER Collection tubes emptied of air or a syringe 70. An enzyme called_______ controls platelet response when a blood vessel is damaged - ANSWER Thrombin 71. flea - ANSWER small piece of metal inside cap tube used with a magnet to mix specimen 72. Newborn Metabolic Screening - ANSWER these tests relate to conditions relating to body's ability to process hormones and enzymes PKU is part of this testing 73. PKU (phenylketonuria) - ANSWER a condition that makes it impossible for babies to metabolize certain proteins 74. PKU testing - ANSWER 1- blood is dripped onto specialized filter paper marked with circles 2- circle should be fully covered and soaked thru with blood visible on front and back 3- do not touch paper to foot 75. blood smear or peripheral blood smear - ANSWER testing done to look at blood cells count and reveals possible problems 76. what tests can be use point of care tests - ANSWER 1- pt/INR 2- glucose 3- HbA1c or hemoglobin A1c 4- hemoglobin 5- hemacrit 77. PT/INR - ANSWER prothrombin time/international normalized ratio tests blood clotting time 78. HbA1c - ANSWER Hemoglobin A1C measures amount of blood sugar attached to hemoglobin 79. Hemoglobin - ANSWER Oxygen carrying pigment in red blood cells 80. Hemacrit - ANSWER The percentage of a blood sample that is RBC's 81. why are hemoglobin and hematocrit tests performed prior to blood tests? - ANSWER to make sure donor doesn't have anemia 82. ethics - ANSWER the knowledge of right and wrong. 83. law - ANSWER a rule established to help people live peacefully together and to ensure order and safety. 84. confidentiality - ANSWER the legal and ethical principal of keeping information private. 85. Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act (HIPAA) - ANSWER a federal law that requires health information be kept private and secure and that organizations take special steps to protect this information. 86. protected health information (PHI) - ANSWER a person's private health information, which includes name, address, telephone number, social security number, email address, and medical record number. 87. Centers for Medicare & Medicaid Services (CMS) - ANSWER a federal agency within the US Department of Health and Human Services that is responsible for Medicare and Medicaid, among many other responsibilities. 88. CLIA waived test - ANSWER a diagnostic test determined by CLIA to be simple, easy to perform, and involving little risk of error; phlebotomists can often perform these tests. 89. point-of-care test - ANSWER diagnostic test performed near or in the presence of the patient; many are CLIA waived. 90. criminal law - ANSWER branch of law dealing with offenses considered to harm all of society. 91. civil law - ANSWER branch of law dealing with disputes between individuals. 92. tort - ANSWER a violation of civil law, e.g. negligence. 93. negligence - ANSWER an action, or the failure to act or provide the proper care, that results in unintended injury to a person. 94. abuse - ANSWER purposeful mistreatment that causes physical, mental, or emotional pain or injury to someone 95. slander - ANSWER Healthcare worker who speaks or writes defamatory or untrue comments about a patient. 96. mandated reporter - ANSWER person who is legally required to report suspected or observed abuse or neglect due to regular contact with vulnerable populations. 97. consent - ANSWER in health care, acknowledgement of agreement to treatment or to a procedure. 98. informed consent - ANSWER in health care, acknowledgement of agreement to treatment or to a procedure that is given after receiving information regarding risks and benefits; informed consent must usually be documented before treatment begins. 99. express consent - ANSWER consent that is actively, consciously acknowledged. 100. assault - ANSWER the use of words or actions to cause another person to feel fearful of being harmed. 101. battery - ANSWER the intentional touching of another person without permission. 102. minor - ANSWER a person less than 18 years of age. 103. cognitive - ANSWER related to the ability to think and process information. 104. implied consent - ANSWER the assumption that a person agrees to treatment or to a procedure; allows medical treatment to be provided in emergency situations, for example, even if the patient is not able to express consent. 105. American Hospital Association (AHA) - ANSWER a nonprofit membership organization concerned with providing information to the healthcare industry and the public regarding healthcare issues and trends. 106. advance directive - ANSWER a legal document that allows people to decide what kind of medical care they wish to have in the event they are unable to make those decisions themselves. 107. living will - ANSWER a type of advance directive that outlines specific medical care a person wants, or does not want, in case he becomes unable to make those decisions. 108. do-not-resuscitate (DNR) - ANSWER a medical order that instructs medical professionals not to perform cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR) in the event of cardiac or respiratory arrest. 109. durable power of attorney for health care - ANSWER a signed, dated, and witnessed legal document that appoints someone else to make the medical decisions for a person in the event he or she becomes unable to do so. 110. medical social worker - ANSWER employee at a health care facility who deals with patients' social, emotional, and financial needs. 111. when should you check expiration dates on testy strips? - ANSWER always 112. critical values - ANSWER test values that are considered life threatening 113. critical value test results can happen in pint of care tests so what do you do next? - ANSWER retest and report results 114. what is the most common way to test blood of infants? - ANSWER capillary puncture/heel stick 115. infants capillary puncture info? - ANSWER 1- use the heel 2- warm the heel 3- lateral heel