AORN Periop 101 Final Exam Complete Questions with Correct Verified Solutions||A+ GRADED!!!UPDATED

AORN Periop 101 Final Exam Complete Questions with Correct Verified Solutions||A+ GRADED!!!UPDATED 2025- 2026 A patient is scheduled for reconstruction of her external ear following a dog bite injury. Which of the following skin prep agents is contraindicated for this case: a) Alcohol b) Cationic phenolic mixture c) Chlorhexidine gluconate d) Povidone-iodine - ANSWER c Which statement correctly describes recommendations for preoperative patient skin antisepsis? a) In determining the area to be prepped, expose the smallest area possible to protect the patient's privacy b) Prep dirty areas before clean areas c) Remove hair with a razor immediately before prepping d) The prep should start at the site of incision and move outwards - ANSWER d When performing surgical skin prep, the antiseptic agent should be applied for the length of the time designated by the a) AORN Guideline on Preoperative Patient Skin Antisepsis b) Available evidence-based research c) Manufacturer's instructions for use (IFU) d) Recommendations from the facility's infection control dept. - ANSWER c The skin can be sterilized: a) Always b) Easily c) Never d) None of the above - ANSWER c Chlorhexidine gluconate (CHG) is an antimicrobial skin prepping agent used: a) Above the neck b) For topical skin application only below the neck c) For vaginal or mucous membrane preps d) In the brain or meninges - ANSWER b Which agents are effective in removing resident microorganisms? a) Mechanical agents b) Chemical agents c) Biochemical agents d) Hydrostatic agents - ANSWER b Which of the following should be avoided during hair removal? a) Use of clippers b) Clipping of hair against the grain of growth c) Nicking or cutting of the skin d) Removal of loose hair from prepped area - ANSWER c Which device should be used while carrying out an extremity prep? a) Cuff b) Tape c) Assistive prop d) Clip - ANSWER c Identify the correct sequence for prepping: a) Dip the sponge into the antimicrobial solution, squeezing out any excess liquid b) Once the prepping is completed, discard the sponge into a trash container c) Perform hand hygiene d) Beginning at the site of the incision, use friction and scrub in a circular motion e) Don sterile gloves and prepare the prep set *Use the letters separated w/commas to indicate correct order (first through last step) - ANSWER c, e, a, d, b Iodophors with added detergent are referred to as "________," and those without added detergents are referred to as "________." a) Scrubs; paints b) Paints; scrubs c) Gels; film-forming d) Scrubs; gels - ANSWER a Transient microorganisms live in the ______ layer of the skin. a) Epidermal b) Dermal c) Fatty (adipose) d) All of the above - ANSWER a Which nerve is MOST frequently injured as a result of improper positioning of the patients arms? a) Brachial plexus b) Lumbar plexus c) Sciatic d) Radial - ANSWER a The basic surgical positions, each with their own variations are: a) Kraske, Sitting, Supine b) Supine, Prone, Kraske c) Supine, Prone, Lateral d) Prone, Supine, Lithotomy - ANSWER c In the planning and provision for safe patient care related to the prevention of positioning injury, the perioperative RN should: a) Depend on the patient's natural defense mechanisms to indicate the need for positioning alterations b) Rely on the surgeon's and anesthesia providers' assessments to guide positioning c) Use a consistent method of procedure-specific positioning for each patient d) Use additional precautions as appropriate based on unique patient considerations - ANSWER d What is an important consideration related to transferring a patient who has received general anesthesia from the OR bed to a gurney for transport to PACU? a) One staff member should routinely be available for pt transfers b) Transfer with a minimum of four staff members in attendance c) Pre-medicate the pt to make them less anxious during transport d) Wait until the pt is fully awake and able to transfer him/herself from the OR bed to the gurney - ANSWER b An area of painful skin that is abraded, blistered, or has shallow craters would be classified as which stage ulcer? a) Stage I b) Stage II c) Stage III d) Stage IV - ANSWER b What physiological effect is MOST likely to result from positioning a patient in the lithotomy position? a) Hip dislocation b) Venous pooling in the legs c) Damage to the brachial nerve d) Severe hypertension - ANSWER a The table is flexed 90° for the _______ position, which is a variation of the ______ position, a) Lateral, prone b) Jack-knife (Kraske), prone c) Trendelenburg, supine d) Jack-knife (Kraske), supine - ANSWER b A 72-y/o patient who has atherosclerosis of both legs (more severe in the right leg) is scheduled for laser-assisted balloon angioplasty under local anesthesia. After the patient has been positioned on the OR table, which one of the following perioperative nursing actions would be most appropriate? a) Provide a small roll in the lumbar area b) Provide padding under the lower extremities allowing the heels to float c) Place a foam headrest under the occiput d) Provide protectors for the olecranon processes - ANSWER b Which surgical position does not adversely affect the diaphragmatic movement? a) Trendelenburg position b) Prone position c) Sitting or Semi-Sitting position d) Lateral position - ANSWER c In the supine position, areas especially susceptible to skin breakdown include the: a) Occipital area, shoulder blades, coccyx, and elbows b) Elbows, the ileum, and the back of the heels c) Coccyx, back of the heels, and brachial plexus d) Shoulder blades, the buttocks, and the clavicle - ANSWER a What response is the result of tissue layers moving on each other? a) Pressure ulcers b) Maceration c) Shearing d) Friction - ANSWER c The minimum number of personnel that should be available to move an anesthetized patient from a supine-to-prone position is: a) Two b) Three c) Four d) Five - ANSWER c What is included in the Universal Protocol for Preventing Wrong Site, Wrong Procedure, and Wrong Person Surgery? a) Briefing and time out b) Preoperative verification and handover report c) Preoperative verification, surgical site marking, and time out d) Surgical site marking and time out e) Transfer de-briefing, site marking, and time out - ANSWER c During the surgical count before closure of the peritoneum, the scrub person and the RN circulator are unable to locate a laparotomy sponge. What is the FIRST thing the RN Circulator should do? a) Contact the radiology dept. scheduler to obtain a stat x-ray for instrument and sponge verification b) Inform the RN supervisor and ask for assistance c) Notify and receive verbal acknowledgment of the discrepancy from the surgeon d) Re-open all bagged and discarded sponges, and recount them - ANSWER c According to the Universal Protocol for Preventing Wrong Site, Wrong Procedure, and Wrong Person Surgery, what is an acceptable method to identify a patient? a) Ask a patient his or her room number b) Confirm the patient's name by reviewing the surgical consent c) Ask the patient to state his/her full name and date of birth d) Check the patient's armband for a hospital MRN and social security number - ANSWER c Match the latex sensitivity categories with their correct description: a) Delayed Type IV Hypersensitivity b) Immediate Type I c) Irritant contact dermatitis 1 - Localized delayed allergic reaction occurring 24-72 hrs. after exposure 2 - Non-allergic skin reaction usually aggravated by glove powder and chemical agents added to raw latex 3 - Occurs within 5-30 min. after exposure. The onset may be delayed 10- 12 hrs. *Use numbers separated w/commas to match - ANSWER 1, 3, 2 An immediate latex allergy response has three stages. Match the following stages with the appropriate symptoms: a) Can progress to a sudden drop in blood pressure, increased HR, and potential circulatory collapse b) Contact urticaria presenting as redness and swelling at the site of exposure c) Response spreads beyond the area of contact and can include itching around the eyes, shortness of breath, and acute rhinitis 1 - Stage I 2 - Stage II 3 - Stage III *Use numbers separated w/commas to match - ANSWER 3, 1, 2 Which of the following actions should NOT be included in the perioperative nursing care of a patient with a suspected latex allergy? a) Assess the patient's cross-sensitivities and previous reactions to latex b) Indicated latex precautions on door signs for every room that the patient occupies c) Schedule the patient as the last procedure of the day if possible d) Use latex-free supplies for IVs, hair covering and dressing material e) Verify that the surgeon is aware of the allergy - ANSWER c Which practice will MOST likely reduce the patient's risk of intraoperative skin injury? a) Allowing prep solutions to dry before draping b) Leaving blotting towels in place to absorb any blood from the wound c) Using a draw sheet to pull the pt from the stretcher to the OR table d) Removing skin prepping agent prior to start of case - ANSWER a What is the BEST way to conduct a Time Out? a) Perform the Time Out in the pre-procedure area if all team members are present. b) Perform the Time Out when the pt enters the room so that s/he may participate. c) The circulating RN leads the Time Out and documents it on the count board within the OR for all to agree d) The Time Out occurs after the patient is prepped, draped, and involves the entire team - ANSWER d When is NOT considered the best time to do a surgical count for sponges, sharps, and instruments? a) When the wound has been completely closed b) Before the procedure begins c) When wound closure begins d) Before a cavity closure - ANSWER a When a count discrepancy occurs, what should be the FIRST action taken by the RN Circulator? a) Call for anterior and lateral x-ray b) Inform the nurse supervisor c) Inform the surgical team of the discrepancy d) Instruct the scrub person to search for the missing item - ANSWER c A patient is scheduled for a modified radial mastectomy, performed by a general surgeon, immediately followed by a breast reconstruction performed by a plastic surgeon. The Time-Out takes place: a) Prior to the beginning of the initial procedure only b) Prior to the beginning of both procedures c) At the discretion of the surgeon d) When one of the surgeons is in the facility - ANSWER b For a patient with a known latex allergy or sensitivity, a recommended risk reduction strategy is: a) Schedule the case as the first procedure of the day b) Schedule the case for any time of the day c) Handle the surgery as any other procedure d) Schedule the surgery as the last procedure of the day - ANSWER a How many identifiers should be used to verify the correct patient, site, and procedure? a) 1 b) 2 c) 3 d) 4 - ANSWER b While a scalpel is bring changed during a hemicolectomy, the blade snaps and breaks into several pieces. The scrub nurse is unable to find a small piece of the blade. Which statement regarding counts is true? a) The count is considered correct b/c the blade broke on the back table and not near the wound b) The count is considered incorrect unless the entire blade is found c) The count is considered correct after the room and sterile field is searched d) The count is considered incorrect even if the entire blade is found - ANSWER b Many national organizations are focusing on ways to improve patient care. Match the organization with their associated safety activity. a) Centers for Medicare and Medicaid Services (CMS) b) Institute of Medicine (IOM) c) The Joint Commission (TJC) d) World Health Organization (WHO) 1 - Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act 2 - National Patient Safety Goals 3 - Safe Surgery Saves Lives 4 - To Err is Human: Building a Safer Health System *Use numbers separated w/commas in the correct/matching order w/the letters. - ANSWER 1, 4, 2, 3 Which characteristic promotes a culture of safety within a health care organization? a) Commitment to safety as the first priority in providing care b) Ongoing education to staff members about patient safety c) Trust among healthcare team members d) All of the above - ANSWER d What is included in the Universal Protocol for Preventing Wrong Site, Wrong Procedure, and Wrong Person Surgery? a) Briefing and time out b) Preoperative verification and handover report c) Preoperative verification, surgical site marking, and time out d) Surgical site marking and time out e) Transfer de-briefing, site marking, and time out - ANSWER c Which of the following practices should be used to implement the Joint Commission's Universal Protocol for Preventing Wrong Site, Wrong Procedure, and Wrong Person Surgery? a) Asking the patient to mark the correct surgical site with an "X" b) Asking the patient to verify the expected procedure in writing c) Using a time-out procedure before beginning the procedure d) Using three unique patient identifiers - ANSWER c Which of the following "AORN Position Statement on Correct Site Surgery" statement is true? a) Family members should not be involved in identifying the correct site b) The surgical site should be marked with a washable marker c) The staff member should verbally verify the correct site with each member of the surgical team d) Wrong-site surgery is most common in ophthalmologic procedures - ANSWER c Which of the following is not a characteristic that promotes a culture of safety within a health care organization? a) Commitment to safety as the first priority in providing care b) Dissemination of information to all levels of staff c) Prompt disciplinary action when errors occur d) Trust among healthcare team members - ANSWER c Which type of human factor is responsible for an error that occurs when a perioperative nurse is trying to attend several tasks at once? a) Device user error b) Knowledge-based c) Situational d) Skill-based - ANSWER c The primary reason for documenting sharp, sponge, and instrument counts is: a) To prevent injury to the patient from a retained foreign object b) To maintain an inventory for the sterile processing dept. c) To provide an accurate item charge for the pt d) To track instruments that might be needed for the next procedure - ANSWER a According to the AORN Guidelines, what is the correct documentation for this medication? a) M.S. 2.0 mg b) MS 2 mg c) Morphine sulfate 2 mg d) Morphine sulfate 2.0 mg - ANSWER c A neighbor call the preoperative area and asks the perioperative RN, "How is my friend? I missed her at church and I heard she was in the hospital." What is the RN's appropriate response? a) "Here's her daughter's telephone number; she can give you more information." b) "She's doing well but I cannot give you any more information." c) "The patient has requested that we share her information only with her family." d) "We are getting ready for surgery so you can talk with her in a few hours." - ANSWER c Perioperative nursing care documentation must include a description of the patient care delivered and the patient response to that care. a) True b) False - ANSWER a What is the perioperative RN's responsibility regarding informed consent? a) Ensure that the consent is correct, signed, and witnessed b) Obtain verbal consent if there is no written consent c) Provide the patient a list of alternative treatments to the proposed surgery d) Review the procedure and expected outcome with the patient - ANSWER a When documenting the use of pneumatic tourniquet which items may not be included? a) Cuff pressure b) Location where the cuff was placed c) Name of the person who applied the tourniquet cuff d) Name of the person who inflated the tourniquet e) Serial number of the unit - ANSWER d Which of the following examples is included on the Joint Commission's list of Do-Not-Use Abbreviations, Acronyms, and Symbols? a) MS b) mcg c) mL d) unit - ANSWER a The regulatory agency responsible for surveying facilities' compliance with the Universal Protocol is: a) Institute of Medicine b) The Joint Commission c) National Quality Forum d) Occupational Safety and Health Administration - ANSWER b When an electrosurgical unit (ESU) is used in surgery, proper documentation includes placement of the dispersive pad, identification of the ESU, and: a) The brand name of the ESU b) The setting used during the surgical procedure c) The brand name of the electrocautery pencil d) The last date of the preventative maintenance - ANSWER b Which of the following types of anesthesia require an anesthesia professional? Select all that apply. a) General b) Local c) Moderate sedation d) Monitored anesthesia care (MAC) - ANSWER a, d The phases of general anesthesia, in order, are: a) Induction, Maintenance, Emergence b) Emergence, Maintenance, Induction c) Maintenance, Emergence, Induction d) Induction, Emergence, Maintenance - ANSWER a Which of the following is associated with increased risk for perioperative hypothermia? a) Female sex b) Higher than normal body weight c) Hyperthyroidism d) Hypertension - ANSWER a If the patient is scheduled for surgery and general anesthesia eats a cheeseburger, according to the American Society of Anesthesiologists, how long should they wait before having anesthesia for surgical procedure? a) 2 hours b) 4 hours c) 6 hours d) 8 hours - ANSWER d Match the anesthesia term to its definition a) General b) Regional c) Monitored Anesthesia Care (MAC) d) Moderate sedation e) Local 1 - Administration of anesthetic agents by an anesthesiologist, CRNA, or specially trained perioperative RN 2 - An injection of local anesthetics near nerve fibers to cause a reversible loss of sensation over an area of the body 3 - Anesthesia provider monitoring and sedation of the patient 4 - Drug-induced, reversible state of unconsciousness 5 - Infiltration or topical administration of agents to anesthetize a body part *Use numbers separated w/commas to match - ANSWER 4, 2, 3, 1, 5 Which type of anesthesia care can a perioperative RN manage after receiving education and competency verification? a) General b) Local c) MAC d) Regional - ANSWER b What is the most consistent indicator of MH during a surgical intervention? a) Tachycardia b) Unexplained increase in end-tidal CO2 c) Elevated temperature d) Sustained muscle contraction - ANSWER b A 79-y/o patient undergoing laparoscopic cholecystectomy is being induced under general anesthesia. The anesthesiologist notices an unexplained tachycardia, tachypnea, and jaw tightness. The capnography shows an elevated end-tidal CO2. What is the immediate action the perioperative RN should take to treat this suspected MH? a) Call for the MH cart and Dantrolene b) Initiate cooling measures c) Administer sodium bicarb d) Change the soda lime canister - ANSWER a A precise way of looking at general anesthesia is to divide it into 3 phases: a) Phase I: Initial Administration, Phase II: Maintenance, Phase III: Excitement b) Phase I: Initial Administration, Phase II: Maintenance, Phase III: Emergence c) Phase I: Induction, Phase II: Maintenance, Phase III: Emergence d) Phase I: Induction, Phase II: Intrasurgery, Phase III: Excitement - ANSWER c During intubation, the patient has chest movement but no air exchange. The perioperative RN's first priority is to: a) Prepare for re-intubation b) Assure that suction is available for the anesthesia care provider c) Provide racemic epinephrine for the anesthesia care provider d) Provide positive-pressure ventilation - ANSWER b In addition to giving Dantrolene, which of the following treatment options for MH should the RN anticipate and prepare? a) Cool pt, restart succinylcholine at lower doses b) Provide 100% oxygen, use iced saline to cool pt c) Replace potassium loss, continue w/safe anesthetic agents d) Avoid pt shivering, contact blood bank for platelets - ANSWER b Which is NOT a local anesthetic drug used for regional anesthesia? a) Bupivacaine b) Lidocaine c) Fentanyl d) Tetracaine - ANSWER c Which of the following drugs should be available to treat a Malignant Hyperthermia (MH) crisis? a) Diazepam (Valium) b) Meperidine (Demerol) c) Dantrolene (Dantrium) d) Sodium Bicarbonate - ANSWER c Indicate the proper sequence for removing gown and gloves at the end of a procedure: a) Scrub RN removes using a glove-to-glove and skin-to-skin technique b) Scrub RN discards gloves and performs hand hygiene c) Scrub RN grasps gown at shoulds and pulls downward d) Scrub RN rolls the contaminated gown and sleeves inside out e) RN circulator unfastens neck and back of gown f) Scrub RN discards rolled gown into laundry hamper or trash *Use letters separated w/commas to put the above in the correct sequence. - ANSWER e, c, d, f, a, b What statment about surgical hand rubs is TRUE? a) Apply surgical hand rub only to hands, concentrating on the finger tips b) Dry hands with a sterile towel after applying a surgical hand rub c) If visibly soiled, wash hands w/soap and water before performing a surgical hand rub d) The surgical hand rub method should never be performed before setting up orthopedic surgeries - ANSWER c During closed assisted gloving, pull the gown cuffs up over the wrists towards the elbows before donning gloves. a) True b) False - ANSWER b Once donned, which area of a surgical gown is considered sterile? a) The front, from the chest to six inches below the surgical field b) The front, from chest to the level of the surgical field c) The neck and shoulders d) The axillary area - ANSWER b Which of the following statements about the gowning procedure is correct? a) As the gown unfolds, slide your hands through the cuffs to allow access for closed gloving b) Hold your hands at chest level and slip both arms into the armholes one at a time c) Open your gown on the back table prior to performing your surgical scrub d) Step back from the table into an unobstructed area to let the gown unfold - ANSWER d A surgical mask should cover both mouth and nose, and should be: a) Allowed to hang around the neck between procedures b) Changed after two hours of use c) Removed and discarded after every case d) Tied snugly with strings crossed - ANSWER c Where should the scrub person's sterile gown be opened? a) As far away from the instrument tray as possible b) In the back corner of the instrument table c) On a separate Mayo stand d) On top of the gloves for the scrub person - ANSWER c After the surgical hand scrub, the scrub person should keep the fingers pointed in which direction to allow water to drop off away from the attire? a) Downwards b) Upwards c) Straight d) Curved towards the palm - ANSWER b When is closed glove technique used? a) During a surgical procedure b) During insertion of an IV cut down c) During the initial donning of sterile gown and gloves only d) When changing one or both gloves - ANSWER c According to the AORN Guidelines, when should the scrubbed team members change their gloves during invasive surgical procedures? a) Every hour b) Every ninety to 150 minutes c) Three hours after start of the procedure and every hour thereafter, until the end of the procedure d) Three to four hours after the start of the procedure - ANSWER b The sterility of an item is: a) Dependent on multi-disciplinary team decisions b) Event-related and dependent on the integrity of the item being maintained c) Regulated by hospital protocol and community standards. d) Affected by time and the maintenance of item integrity - ANSWER b After the perioperative RN sets up for a total joint procedure before the pt enters the room, she discovers a dirty instrument on the sterile back table. What step should the perioperative RN take NEXT? a) Break down the back table and reestablish the sterile field b) Bring the pt in the room and document the contamination in the pt's chart c) Cover the area where the dirty instrument was found with a sterile towel d) Remove the dirty instrument from the sterile field and replace it w/another sterilized instrument - ANSWER a What is a suggested action from the recommendation, "a sterile field should be maintained and monitored constantly?" a) If a delay occurs after a sterile field is set up, the sterile field may be covered with sterile drapes until the delay is resolved b) If a delay occurs after a sterile field is set up, personnel may leave the room as long as someone remains in the room to maintain continuous visual observation of the sterile field c) The sterile field should be prepared as close as possible to the time of use d) All of the above - ANSWER d Put the following steps in order when opening a wrapped sterile package: 1. Open the nearest wrapper flap 2. Open the side flaps 3. Open the farthest wrapper flap a) 3, 1, 2 b) 2, 1, 3 c) 1, 2, 3 d) 3, 2, 1 - ANSWER d Match terms with correct definitions: a) Surgical conscience b) Sterile c) Sterile technique 1 - The use of specific actions and activities to prevent contamination and maintain sterility of identified areas during operative or other invasive procedures 2 - Allows for no compromise in the principles of sterile technique 3 - The absence of all living microorganisms *Use numbers to match with the terms in order of a-c. - ANSWER 2, 3, 1 To prevent contamination of the sterile field, unscrubbed team members should face the field when approaching it, should not walk between two fields, and should stay at least _______ away from a sterile field. a) 6 inches b) 12 inches c) 18 inches d) 24 inches - ANSWER b What action below is the best course to take when a hair is found in an instrument tray on the back table? a) Using a sterile clamp, the scrub person should remove the hair and pass it off to the RN circulator b) The scrub person should pass off the entire instrument tray and request a replacement c) The entire sterile field should be broken down and a sterile field reestablished d) The scrub person should pass off the instrument tray and change gown and gloves - ANSWER c According to AORN Standards, Recommended Practices, and Guidelines, sterile gowns are considered sterile: a) In front from neckline to sleeves b) In front and back from waist up c) In front from chest to level of sterile field d) Entirely - ANSWER c Scrubbed personnel changing positions within a sterile field should turn: a) Back to back b) Front to back c) With hands kept below the level of the waist d) Only if single-use sterile gowns are being worn - ANSWER a The best method if transferring medication to the sterile field is to: a) Dispense only what is needed, then recap the container to preserve the sterility of the unused solution b) Remove the stopper from vials and pour the solution onto the sterile field c) Transfer all intraoperative and postop medications to the sterile field prior to the start of the case d) Use a sterile transfer device - ANSWER d Damp dusting of horizontal surfaces in the OR suite should be performed: a) Before every single procedure set up b) Beginning with the highest surfaces and moving to the lowest c) Using a disposable cloth moistened with isopropyl alcohol d) When the OR suite has been vacant for 24 hrs - ANSWER b A safe, clean environment should be reestablished after each surgical procedure. This includes: a) Cleaning all areas of ceiling and walls b) Cleaning from the dirtiest to cleanest areas c) Emptying the linen hamper only when it's full d) Ensuring full contact time for the hospital disinfectant - ANSWER d What is a recommendation for limiting the transmission of microorganisms in the surgical setting? a) Allowing used sponges to hang over the edge of the kick bucket for counting b) Discarding soiled sponges and items contaminated with body fluids into biohazard waste receptacles c) Recapping needles using a two-handed method d) Using a spray bottle filled with hospital-approved disinfectant to clean small spills - ANSWER b What area in the OR suite is considered "high-touch" and should be cleaned after each surgical procedure? a) Air vents b) Ceilings and walls c) OR bed control d) Shelving and storage bins - ANSWER c Terminal Cleaning must be done: a) Once during each 24-hr period b) Twice during a 24-hr period c) Once in a week-long period d) Twice in a week-long period - ANSWER a _________ recommend prompt cleanup of items stained with blood, tissue, or body fluids. a) Manufacturer guidelines b) Local, state, and federal regulations c) Confine and contain principles d) Hospital specifications - ANSWER c Terminal cleaning of operative and procedural rooms should be done a) After every scheduled procedure b) After cases involving ruptured bowel c) Only if the room has been used that day d) When scheduled procedures are completed for the day - ANSWER d The perioperative nurse prepares the OR suite before the first scheduled procedure by: a) Damp dusting the furniture, equipment, and surgical lights b) Terminally cleaning the furniture, equipment, and floors c) Cleaning the floor and walls with diluted bleach d) Replacing all linen and trash bags - ANSWER a