NGN ATI MENTAL HEALTH PROCTORED PRACTICE EXAM QUESTIONS WITH CORRECT DETAILED ANSWERS | ALREADY GRADED A+RECENT VERSION

NGN ATI MENTAL HEALTH PROCTORED PRACTICE EXAM QUESTIONS WITH CORRECT DETAILED ANSWERS | ALREADY GRADED A+RECENT VERSION 1) Setting limits with aggressive clients - answer tell the client calmly and directly what he must do in a particular situation "i need you to stop yelling and walk with me outside where we can talk." 2) Risk factors of family & community violence - answer victims are the greatest risk of violence when they try to leave the relationship Pregnancy tends to increase the likelihood of violence toward the intimate partner Child under 3 years of age 3) Family violence other name - answer maltreatment 4) Tension phase (violence) - answer abuser has minor episodes of anger and may be verbally abusive and responsible for some minor physical violence 5) Acute battering phase - answer the tension becomes too much to bear and serious abuse takes place Victim may try to cover up injuries or may get help 6) Honeymoon phase - answer abuser becomes loving, promises to change, and is sorry for behavior 7) Shaken baby syndrome findings - answer may cause intercranial hemorrhage assess for respiratory distress, bulging fontanelles, increase in head circumference 8) Referrals for older adult client after suicide attempt - answer a. Occupational therapy, b. Meal delivery services, e. Home health services 9) Informed consent for deaf client undergoing ect - answer a. Request a professional interpreter to translate 10) Action for aggressive client refusing lorazepam - answer b. Do not administer the lorazepam 11) Client's behavior in initial interview - answer a. Is beginning to trust the nurse 12) Nurse's action in group therapy with dominating client - answer d. Interrupt the client and direct the discussion to another group member 13) Nurse's first action when suspecting abuse - answer a. Initiate a referral to social services for suspected abuse 14) Referral to social services - answer initiate a referral to social services for suspected abuse. 15) Signs of abuse - answer check the client for other signs and symptoms of abuse. 16) Escalating abuse - answer assist the client to identify signs of escalating abuse. 17) Supportive family member - answer identify a family member who can provide support to the client. 18) Alcoholics anonymous understanding - answer a client indicates understanding of teaching by stating, 'i will learn ways to decrease my alcohol use.' 19) Peer support in recovery - answer a client indicates understanding of teaching by stating, 'i will use peer support to maintain my abstinence.' 20) Responsibility for addiction - answer a client indicates understanding of teaching by stating, 'i will learn to take responsibility for my addiction.' 21) Health care professional as sponsor - answer a client indicates understanding of teaching by stating, 'i will use a health care professional as my sponsor.' 22) Orienting client with dementia - answer place a large wall calendar in the client's room. 23) Healthy adolescent behavior - answer displays an egocentric approach in problem-solving (preschooler). 24) Literal explanations - answer requires literal explanations (toddler). 25) Mistrust in infants - answer demonstrates mistrust of others (infant). 26) Realistic self-concept - answer exhibits a realistic self-concept. 27) Alcoholic cardiomyopathy lab values - answer increased creatine phosphokinase (cpk) is expected (muscle enzyme released when muscle tissue is damaged, occurs with cardiomyopathy). 28) Low-density lipoproteins - answer increased low-density lipoproteins (ldl). 29) Fasting blood sugar - answer decreased fasting blood sugar (fbs). 30) Aspartate aminotransferase - answer decreased aspartate aminotransferase (ast). 31) Client's concern about discharge - answer an appropriate response is, 'you seem concerned about getting out of the hospital.' 32) False reassurance - answer an inappropriate response is, 'care at the hospital will help you to feel better about yourself.' 33) Client with schizophrenia - answer assess the client for evidence of a perceptual disturbance (assess the situation to determine if the client is hallucinating or misperceiving external stimuli). 34) Inappropriate action with hallucination - answer ask the client to identify the bomb in the room (inappropriate action because the nurse is responding as if the hallucination is real). 35) Disaster protocols - answer initiate disaster protocols per facility policies and procedures (without evidence of a disaster on a mental health unit). 36) Risperidone - answer a medication that can cause diabetes mellitus to develop; therefore, the nurse should plan to monitor the client's blood glucose level when taking this medication. 37) Anorexia nervosa - answer a condition where the nurse should expect clinical findings such as amenorrhea, tooth erosion, russell's sign, and parotid gland swelling. 38) Electroconvulsive therapy (ect) - answer a procedure that can increase the risk for developing parkinson's disease and may cause short-term memory loss. 39) Complicated grief - answer a risk indicated by statements such as feeling empty without the deceased and having difficulty getting up every morning. 40) Negative symptoms of schizophrenia - answer symptoms such as flat affect, which is the absence of emotion. 41) Positive symptoms of schizophrenia - answer symptoms such as hallucinations and flight of ideas, which indicate alterations in perception and thought disorder. 42) Bereavement support group - answer a setting where strategies such as dividing the group into pairs can help encourage participation from silent members. 43) Tooth erosion - answer a clinical finding associated with bulimia from self-induced vomiting. 44) Amenorrhea - answer a clinical finding caused by low weight in clients with anorexia nervosa. 45) Russell's sign - answer calluses on knuckles that can occur due to self-inducing vomiting. 46) Parotid gland swelling - answer a clinical finding in clients with bulimia, indicated by increased serum amylase levels. 47) Short-term memory loss - answer a potential effect following electroconvulsive therapy (ect). 48) Cardiac monitor - answer a device that will be in place during the electroconvulsive therapy (ect) procedure. 49) Guilt in bereavement - answer an expression of guilt, such as wishing to have been nicer before the death, which is expected during bereavement. 50) Anger in bereavement - answer an expression of anger, such as blaming the deceased for not listening to medical advice. 51) Preoccupation with the deceased - answer a statement indicating ongoing thoughts about the deceased during outings, which can be a sign of complicated grief. 52) Agitated behavior - answer a positive symptom of schizophrenia characterized by bizarre behavior. 53) Hallucinations - answer alterations in perception that are classified as positive symptoms of schizophrenia. 54) Group participation strategies - answer techniques such as reminding the group to participate or focusing on other members to encourage participation. 55) Discharge teaching - answer education provided to family members of clients with new diagnoses, such as depression. 56) Relapse in depression - answer early identification of changes such as decreased social involvement is important. 57) Posttraumatic stress disorder (ptsd) - answer distressing dream (persistently reexperience the event that triggers ptsd in the form of distressing dreams). 58) Delusions - answer false fixed beliefs that are difficult to eradicate. 59) Difficulty concentrating - answer persistent increased arousal. 60) Compulsions - answer compelled to repeatedly perform to reduce anxiety. 61) Exaggerated startle response - answer persistent increased arousal. 62) Bipolar disorder priority behavior - answer giving away possessions (risk for suicide). 63) Anger and aggression management - answer defuse the situation using therapeutic communication. 64) Dependent personality disorder - answer the client needs excessive external input to make everyday decisions. 65) Ocd behavior - answer the client demonstrates a dedication to his job that excludes time for leisure activities. 66) Rigid rule adherence - answer the client adheres to a rigid set of rules. 67) Avoidant personality disorder - answer the client has difficulty starting new relationships unless he feels accepted. 68) Haloperidol side effects - answer blurred vision. 69) Photosensitivity - answer a side effect of haloperidol that should be reported. 70) Shuffling gait - answer pseudoparkinsonism, occurring 5 hours to 30 days after beginning treatment. 71) Mild anxiety - answer restlessness, irritability, nail biting, and fidgeting. 72) Moderate anxiety - answer tension, palpitation, increased heart rate, and diaphoresis. 73) Severe anxiety - answer difficulty sleeping, light headedness, nausea, tremors, and a sense of impending doom. 74) Panic - answer hyperactivity, severe tremors, and uncoordinated impulsive behavior. 75) Borderline personality disorder care goal - answer the client will refrain from self-mutilation. 76) Purpose of attending a support group - answer provide assurance that others have a similar problem. 77) Active listening - answer offering self (demonstrate genuine interest in the client). 78) Active listening - answer use of silence (demonstrate willingness to wait for the client's response). 79) Active listening - answer attention to body language. 80) Active listening - answer reflection of feelings (encourage the client to acknowledge his feeling). 81) Lithium level - answer 1.5 meq/l. 82) Additional laboratory data priority - answer serum sodium 125 meq/l (low sodium level). 83) Situational crisis example - answer the client recently lost a grandparent in a motor vehicle crash. 84) Adventitious crisis example - answer the client's town was hit by a tornado. 85) Maturational crisis example - answer the client's youngest son leaves for college. 86) Informed consent - answer a 35-year-old who has major depressive disorder. 87) Informed consent - answer a 17-year-old who lives with friends (minor).