WGU D115 OA ADVANCED f f f
PATHOPHYSIOLOGYEXAM 2024 | ACTUAL f f f
EXAM QUESTIONS WITH DETAILED
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ANSWERS WITH RATIONALES AND A f f f f
READINESS PRACTICE EXAM TEST BANK
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WITH A STUDY GUIDE f f f f
Age and the admission of the Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) are important
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diagnostic factors in TBI. Which GCS score describes a severe TBI?
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A) 13-
15
C) 9-12
D) 3-8 - ANSWER>>D) 3-8
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The GCS is scored between 3 and 15, 3 being the worst and 15 the best.
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Which term describes recurrent, intrusive thoughts or impulses?
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A) Hallucinations
B) Compulsions
C) Obsessions
Obsessions are recurrent and persistent thoughts, impulses, or images that cause
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distressing emotions such as anxiety or disgust.
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D) Delusions - ANSWER>>C) Obsessions f f f
Obsessions are recurrent and persistent thoughts, impulses, or images that cause
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distressing emotions such as anxiety or disgust.
f f f f f f f
During an intake interview with a 26-year-old man diagnosed with generalized
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anxiety disorder, the FNP might observe what type of behavior?
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A) An inflated sense of self
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B) Constant relation to future events f f f f
C) Inability to concentrate and irritability when questioned
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Impaired concentration and irritability are major characteristics of GAD.
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,D) Nervousness and fear of the FNP during the interview - ANSWER>>C)
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Inability to concentrate and irritability when questioned
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Impaired concentration and irritability are major characteristics of GAD.
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What is the most common indication for genetic counseling?
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A) maternal age f
B) drug exposure during the first trimester?
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C) Increased maternal alpha-fetoprotein f f
D) history of previous still birth - ANSWER>>A) maternal age f f f f f f f f
The largest group of women who benefit from genetic counseling are those over
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the age of 35
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The FNP schedules a 38-year-old primigravida (first time pregnancy) for an
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amniocentesis at 16 weeks gestation. The FNP would explain that the purpose of
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this procedure is to:
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A) Assess for the possibility of twins f f f f f
B) Deterime the biliruben level f f f
C) Perform genetic studies f f
D) Assess L/S ratio - ANSWER>>C) Perform genetic f f f f f f
studies This womans age puts her at risk for Down
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Syndrome
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In the most commonly seen form of Turner Syndrome, how is the X chromosome
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affected?
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A) Each cell has only one X chromosome? f f f f f f
B) Some cells have two X chromsomes, while the other cells have only one.
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C) Each cell has two X chromsomes, but part of the chromosome is missing.
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D) Each cell has an extra X chromosome - ANSWER>>A) Each cell has only one X
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chromsome
f
45% of persons with Turner Syndrome have monosomy X meaning there is only
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one copy of the X chromosome in each cell.
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,The FNP is assessing a newborn who is demonstrating a high-pitched cry,
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microcephaly, hypertelorism, hypotonia, and a low birth weight. The FNP would f f f f f f f f f f
suspect which of the following genetic conditions?
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A) Down Syndrome f
B) Cri du chat f f
C) Charge syndrome f
D) Duncan disease - ANSWER>>B) Cri du chat f f f f f f
The clinical symptoms of cri du chat syndrome usually include a high-pitched
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cat-like cry, mental retardation, delayed development, distinctive facial
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features, small head size (microcephaly), widely-spaced eyes (hypertelorism),
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low birth weight and weak muscle tone (hypotonia) in infancy.
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When explaining the types of adaptive immunity, the FNP student is aware that:
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A) Adaptive immunity is a cell-mediated immune response which is f f f f f f f f
B) Adaptive immunity is the level of immunity that all persons are born with.
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C) Adaptive immunity occurs when antibodies are passed from the mother to the f f f f f f f f f f f
fetus.
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D) Adaptive immunity occurs through immunization. - ANSWER>>A) Adaptive f f f f f f f
immunity is a cell-mediated immune response which is carried out by T cells
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and B cells.
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There are two types of adaptive immunity responses: the cell-mediated immune
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response, which is carried out by T cells, and the humoral immune response,
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which is controlled by activated B cells and antibodies.
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A woman has sustained a traumatic brain injury. She is able to follow simple
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commands and can manipulate objects. Which term describes this state?
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A) Coma
B) Persistent vegetative state f f
C) Minimally conscious f
D) Locked-in syndrome - ANSWER>>C) Minimally conscious f f f f f
When responses to the environment are seen, the patient is said to be in a
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minimally conscious state
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, The FNP would expect which symptoms in a patient with a diagnosis of
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schizophrenia?
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A) High energy with varying sleep patterns and non stop conversation.
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B) Extreme and frequent mood swings with hyperactivity and
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difficulty concentrating.
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C) Paranoia, delusions, hallucinations, and diminished self-care.
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D) Anti-social behavior, manipulative behavior, charisma, and ability to lie
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convincingly. - ANSWER>>C) Paranoia, delusions, hallucinations, and
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diminished self-care.
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The characteristics of schizophrenia are paranoia, delusions, tangential thoughts,
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suspiciousness, disorganized behavior, and hallucinations.
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The FNP is seeing a 10 year old child with complaints of otalgia and muffled
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hearing. The mother states the child recently recovered from an upper
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respiratory infection. The FNP suspects that this child has:
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A) Acute otitis media
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B) Acute otitis externa
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C) Cholesteatoma
D) Chronic otitis media - ANSWER>>A) Acute otitis media
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The classic presentation of otitis media is otalgia, muffled hearing, popping
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sensation, and a recent history of a cold or flare up of allergic rhinitis.
f f f f f f f f f f f f f f
The FNP understands that a potential complication of tonsillar infections, which
f f f f f f f f f f
is characterized by severe sore throat, difficulty swallowing, odynophagia,
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trismus, and a "hot potato" voice; accompanied by fever, chills and malaise is
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indicative of:
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A) Retropharyngeal abscess f
B) Epiglotitis
C) Peritonsillar cellulitis f
D) Peritonsillar abscess - ANSWER>>D) Peritonsillar abscess f f f f f
PATHOPHYSIOLOGYEXAM 2024 | ACTUAL f f f
EXAM QUESTIONS WITH DETAILED
f f f f
ANSWERS WITH RATIONALES AND A f f f f
READINESS PRACTICE EXAM TEST BANK
f f f f f
WITH A STUDY GUIDE f f f f
Age and the admission of the Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) are important
f f f f f f f f f f f
diagnostic factors in TBI. Which GCS score describes a severe TBI?
f f f f f f f f f f
A) 13-
15
C) 9-12
D) 3-8 - ANSWER>>D) 3-8
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The GCS is scored between 3 and 15, 3 being the worst and 15 the best.
f f f f f f f f f f f f f f f
Which term describes recurrent, intrusive thoughts or impulses?
f f f f f f f
A) Hallucinations
B) Compulsions
C) Obsessions
Obsessions are recurrent and persistent thoughts, impulses, or images that cause
f f f f f f f f f f
distressing emotions such as anxiety or disgust.
f f f f f f f
D) Delusions - ANSWER>>C) Obsessions f f f
Obsessions are recurrent and persistent thoughts, impulses, or images that cause
f f f f f f f f f f
distressing emotions such as anxiety or disgust.
f f f f f f f
During an intake interview with a 26-year-old man diagnosed with generalized
f f f f f f f f f f
anxiety disorder, the FNP might observe what type of behavior?
f f f f f f f f f f
A) An inflated sense of self
f f f f
B) Constant relation to future events f f f f
C) Inability to concentrate and irritability when questioned
f f f f f f
Impaired concentration and irritability are major characteristics of GAD.
f f f f f f f f
,D) Nervousness and fear of the FNP during the interview - ANSWER>>C)
f f f f f f f f f f f
Inability to concentrate and irritability when questioned
f f f f f f
Impaired concentration and irritability are major characteristics of GAD.
f f f f f f f f
What is the most common indication for genetic counseling?
f f f f f f f f
A) maternal age f
B) drug exposure during the first trimester?
f f f f f
C) Increased maternal alpha-fetoprotein f f
D) history of previous still birth - ANSWER>>A) maternal age f f f f f f f f
The largest group of women who benefit from genetic counseling are those over
f f f f f f f f f f f f
the age of 35
f f f f
The FNP schedules a 38-year-old primigravida (first time pregnancy) for an
f f f f f f f f f f
amniocentesis at 16 weeks gestation. The FNP would explain that the purpose of
f f f f f f f f f f f f f
this procedure is to:
f f f f
A) Assess for the possibility of twins f f f f f
B) Deterime the biliruben level f f f
C) Perform genetic studies f f
D) Assess L/S ratio - ANSWER>>C) Perform genetic f f f f f f
studies This womans age puts her at risk for Down
f f f f f f f f f f
Syndrome
f
In the most commonly seen form of Turner Syndrome, how is the X chromosome
f f f f f f f f f f f f f
affected?
f
A) Each cell has only one X chromosome? f f f f f f
B) Some cells have two X chromsomes, while the other cells have only one.
f f f f f f f f f f f f
C) Each cell has two X chromsomes, but part of the chromosome is missing.
f f f f f f f f f f f f
D) Each cell has an extra X chromosome - ANSWER>>A) Each cell has only one X
f f f f f f f f f f f f f f
chromsome
f
45% of persons with Turner Syndrome have monosomy X meaning there is only
f f f f f f f f f f f f
one copy of the X chromosome in each cell.
f f f f f f f f f
,The FNP is assessing a newborn who is demonstrating a high-pitched cry,
f f f f f f f f f f f
microcephaly, hypertelorism, hypotonia, and a low birth weight. The FNP would f f f f f f f f f f
suspect which of the following genetic conditions?
f f f f f f f
A) Down Syndrome f
B) Cri du chat f f
C) Charge syndrome f
D) Duncan disease - ANSWER>>B) Cri du chat f f f f f f
The clinical symptoms of cri du chat syndrome usually include a high-pitched
f f f f f f f f f f f
cat-like cry, mental retardation, delayed development, distinctive facial
f f f f f f f f
features, small head size (microcephaly), widely-spaced eyes (hypertelorism),
f f f f f f f f
low birth weight and weak muscle tone (hypotonia) in infancy.
f f f f f f f f f f
When explaining the types of adaptive immunity, the FNP student is aware that:
f f f f f f f f f f f f
A) Adaptive immunity is a cell-mediated immune response which is f f f f f f f f
B) Adaptive immunity is the level of immunity that all persons are born with.
f f f f f f f f f f f f
C) Adaptive immunity occurs when antibodies are passed from the mother to the f f f f f f f f f f f
fetus.
f
D) Adaptive immunity occurs through immunization. - ANSWER>>A) Adaptive f f f f f f f
immunity is a cell-mediated immune response which is carried out by T cells
f f f f f f f f f f f f f
and B cells.
f f f
There are two types of adaptive immunity responses: the cell-mediated immune
f f f f f f f f f f
response, which is carried out by T cells, and the humoral immune response,
f f f f f f f f f f f f f
which is controlled by activated B cells and antibodies.
f f f f f f f f f
A woman has sustained a traumatic brain injury. She is able to follow simple
f f f f f f f f f f f f f
commands and can manipulate objects. Which term describes this state?
f f f f f f f f f f
A) Coma
B) Persistent vegetative state f f
C) Minimally conscious f
D) Locked-in syndrome - ANSWER>>C) Minimally conscious f f f f f
When responses to the environment are seen, the patient is said to be in a
f f f f f f f f f f f f f f
minimally conscious state
f f f
, The FNP would expect which symptoms in a patient with a diagnosis of
f f f f f f f f f f f f
schizophrenia?
f
A) High energy with varying sleep patterns and non stop conversation.
f f f f f f f f f
B) Extreme and frequent mood swings with hyperactivity and
f f f f f f f
difficulty concentrating.
f f
C) Paranoia, delusions, hallucinations, and diminished self-care.
f f f f f
D) Anti-social behavior, manipulative behavior, charisma, and ability to lie
f f f f f f f f
convincingly. - ANSWER>>C) Paranoia, delusions, hallucinations, and
f f f f f f f
diminished self-care.
f f
The characteristics of schizophrenia are paranoia, delusions, tangential thoughts,
f f f f f f f f
suspiciousness, disorganized behavior, and hallucinations.
f f f f f
The FNP is seeing a 10 year old child with complaints of otalgia and muffled
f f f f f f f f f f f f f f
hearing. The mother states the child recently recovered from an upper
f f f f f f f f f f f
respiratory infection. The FNP suspects that this child has:
f f f f f f f f f
A) Acute otitis media
f f
B) Acute otitis externa
f f
C) Cholesteatoma
D) Chronic otitis media - ANSWER>>A) Acute otitis media
f f f f f f f
The classic presentation of otitis media is otalgia, muffled hearing, popping
f f f f f f f f f f
sensation, and a recent history of a cold or flare up of allergic rhinitis.
f f f f f f f f f f f f f f
The FNP understands that a potential complication of tonsillar infections, which
f f f f f f f f f f
is characterized by severe sore throat, difficulty swallowing, odynophagia,
f f f f f f f f f
trismus, and a "hot potato" voice; accompanied by fever, chills and malaise is
f f f f f f f f f f f f f
indicative of:
f f
A) Retropharyngeal abscess f
B) Epiglotitis
C) Peritonsillar cellulitis f
D) Peritonsillar abscess - ANSWER>>D) Peritonsillar abscess f f f f f
