Virtual ATI Predictor Green Light Test A &
Test B | 2025/2026 Edition | Actual Exam
Questions and Verified Answers | Professor
Verified | A+ Graded | Latest Versions
(Just Released)
Section 1: Introduction
This document features actual and up-to-date exam questions and answers from the Virtual
ATI Predictor Green Light Test A and Test B, aligned with the 2025/2026 academic cycle. It
includes critical NCLEX-style content across priority setting, pharmacology, safety, clinical
decision-making, and nursing interventions. All questions are professor-verified and A+
graded, making this the latest and most accurate guide for students ready to earn the Green
Light and pass the NCLEX confidently.
Section 2: Exam Questions and Answers
Virtual ATI Predictor Green Light Test A
Question 1: A nurse is caring for a client at 33 weeks of gestation following an
amniocentesis. Which complication should the nurse monitor for?
A) Vomiting
B) Hypertension
C) Epigastric pain
D) Contractions
Correct Answer: D) Contractions
Rationale: Amniocentesis can stimulate uterine contractions, risking preterm labor. Vomiting
(A) and epigastric pain (C) are unrelated, and hypertension (B) may indicate preeclampsia,
not directly tied to the procedure.
Question 2: A nurse is teaching an older adult client about promoting nighttime sleep. Which
instruction should be included?
A) Stay in bed for 1 hr if unable to sleep
B) Take a 1 hr nap during the day
C) Perform exercises before bedtime
D) Eat a light snack before bedtime
Correct Answer: D) Eat a light snack before bedtime
Rationale: A light snack stabilizes blood sugar, promoting sleep. Staying in bed (A)
increases anxiety, napping (B) disrupts sleep cycles, and exercise (C) is stimulating.
Question 3: A nurse is assessing a client with acute angle-closure glaucoma. Which finding
is expected?
,A) Increased light perception
B) Reddened cornea
C) Severe periocular pain
D) Gray cast sclera
Correct Answer: C) Severe periocular pain
Rationale: Acute angle-closure glaucoma causes severe eye pain due to increased intraocular
pressure. Light perception (A) decreases, cornea (B) may cloud, and sclera (D) is unaffected.
Question 4: A nurse is caring for a client with deep vein thrombosis (DVT). Which action
should be taken?
A) Position the affected extremity lower than the heart
B) Withhold heparin if PTT is twice the normal range
C) Administer acetaminophen IV
D) Massage the affected extremity every 4 hr
Correct Answer: B) Withhold heparin if PTT is twice the normal range
Rationale: Heparin is withheld if PTT exceeds 2x normal (30–40 sec) to prevent bleeding.
Lowering the extremity (A) worsens swelling, acetaminophen (C) is oral, and massage (D)
risks emboli.
Question 5: A nurse is providing discharge teaching to a client with chronic kidney disease
on hemodialysis. Which instruction should be included?
A) Eat 1 g/kg of protein per day
B) Take magnesium hydroxide for indigestion
C) Drink at least 3 L of fluid daily
D) Consume high-potassium foods
Correct Answer: A) Eat 1 g/kg of protein per day
Rationale: Hemodialysis patients need 1 g/kg protein to meet nutritional needs. Magnesium
hydroxide (B) risks toxicity, fluid (C) is restricted, and potassium (D) is limited.
Question 6: A nurse is caring for a client who is febrile and applies a cooling blanket. Which
finding indicates an adverse reaction?
A) Flushing
B) Tachycardia
C) Restlessness
D) Shivering
Correct Answer: D) Shivering
Rationale: Shivering indicates the body is fighting the cooling blanket, raising temperature.
Flushing (A), tachycardia (B), and restlessness (C) are non-specific.
Question 7: A nurse is admitting a client who is 1 week postpartum and reports excessive
vaginal bleeding. The nurse and client speak different languages. Which action should the
nurse take to gather data?
A) Have the client’s child translate
B) Allow the client’s partner to translate
C) Request a female interpreter through the facility
D) Ask a nursing student who speaks the client’s language
Correct Answer: C) Request a female interpreter through the facility
Rationale: A professional interpreter ensures accuracy and privacy, especially for sensitive
issues. Family (A, B) may bias responses, and students (D) lack training.
,Question 8: A nurse is reviewing assessment data. Which client should be referred to a
dietitian?
A) Older adult with BMI of 24
B) Client with a nonhealing leg ulcer
C) Older adult with presbyopia
D) Client with albumin level of 3.7 g/dL
Correct Answer: B) Client with a nonhealing leg ulcer
Rationale: Nonhealing ulcers require nutritional support for wound healing. BMI 24 (A) is
normal, presbyopia (C) is age-related, and albumin 3.7 (D) is within normal (3.4–5.4).
Question 9: A nurse is caring for a client receiving intermittent enteral feedings. Which
factor places the client at risk for aspiration?
A) Sitting in high-Fowler’s position during feeding
B) History of gastroesophageal reflux disease
C) Receiving a high osmolarity formula
D) Residual of 65 mL 1 hr postprandial
Correct Answer: B) History of gastroesophageal reflux disease
Rationale: GERD increases aspiration risk due to reflux. High-Fowler’s (A) reduces risk,
high osmolarity (C) causes diarrhea, and 65 mL residual (D) is acceptable.
Question 10: A nurse is providing prenatal teaching to a client at 12 weeks of gestation.
Which screening test should the client expect at 16 weeks?
A) Chorionic villus sampling
B) Cervical cultures for chlamydia
C) Nonstress test
D) Maternal serum alpha-fetoprotein
Correct Answer: D) Maternal serum alpha-fetoprotein
Rationale: MSAFP is screened at 16–18 weeks for neural tube defects. CVS (A) is at 8–12
weeks, chlamydia (B) at first visit, and NST (C) at 28 weeks.
Question 11: A nurse is caring for a client with a new colostomy. Which statement by the
client indicates a need for further teaching?
A) “I should change the pouch every 5–7 days.”
B) “I can eat high-fiber foods like vegetables.”
C) “I should drink 2–3 L of fluid daily.”
D) “I will irrigate my colostomy daily.”
Correct Answer: D) I will irrigate my colostomy daily.
Rationale: Routine irrigation is unnecessary for most colostomies and may cause
dependency. Pouch changes (A), high-fiber diet (B), and fluid intake (C) are correct.
Question 12: A nurse is assessing a client with suspected appendicitis. Which finding should
the nurse report immediately?
A) Rebound tenderness
B) Flatulence
C) Low-grade fever
D) Anorexia
Correct Answer: A) Rebound tenderness
Rationale: Rebound tenderness indicates peritoneal irritation, suggesting possible rupture.
Flatulence (B), fever (C), and anorexia (D) are common but less urgent.
, Question 13: A nurse is administering insulin glargine to a client with type 1 diabetes. When
is the best time to administer this medication?
A) 30 minutes before breakfast
B) Immediately after dinner
C) At bedtime
D) With the first bite of a meal
Correct Answer: C) At bedtime
Rationale: Insulin glargine, a long-acting insulin, is typically given at bedtime for consistent
glucose control. Other times (A, B, D) are for rapid-acting insulins.
Question 14: A nurse is caring for a client with a history of seizures. Which medication
should the nurse anticipate administering?
A) Phenytoin
B) Metoprolol
C) Lisinopril
D) Warfarin
Correct Answer: A) Phenytoin
Rationale: Phenytoin is an anticonvulsant used for seizure control. Metoprolol (B) and
lisinopril (C) treat hypertension, and warfarin (D) is an anticoagulant.
Question 15: A nurse is teaching a client about warfarin therapy. Which statement indicates
understanding?
A) “I can eat as much spinach as I want.”
B) “I should use a soft toothbrush.”
C) “I will take my dose in the morning.”
D) “I don’t need regular blood tests.”
Correct Answer: **B) I should use a soft toothbrush.”
Rationale: Warfarin increases bleeding risk; a soft toothbrush prevents gum bleeding.
Spinach (A) affects INR, dosing time (C) is flexible, and blood tests (D) are required.
Question 16: A nurse is caring for a client with heart failure. Which finding indicates
worsening condition?
A) Weight loss of 2 kg in 1 week
B) Decreased dyspnea on exertion
C) Crackles in bilateral lung bases
D) Heart rate of 80 bpm
Correct Answer: C) Crackles in bilateral lung bases
Rationale: Crackles indicate pulmonary edema, a sign of worsening heart failure. Weight
loss (A) and reduced dyspnea (B) suggest improvement, and HR 80 (D) is normal.
Question 17: A nurse is preparing to administer a blood transfusion. Which action should be
taken first?
A) Verify the client’s identity with two nurses
B) Check the blood type and Rh factor
C) Start the transfusion at 10 mL/hr
D) Obtain vital signs
Correct Answer: A) Verify the client’s identity with two nurses
Rationale: Verifying identity prevents transfusion errors. Blood type (B) follows, transfusion
rate (C) is later, and vital signs (D) are baseline after verification.
Test B | 2025/2026 Edition | Actual Exam
Questions and Verified Answers | Professor
Verified | A+ Graded | Latest Versions
(Just Released)
Section 1: Introduction
This document features actual and up-to-date exam questions and answers from the Virtual
ATI Predictor Green Light Test A and Test B, aligned with the 2025/2026 academic cycle. It
includes critical NCLEX-style content across priority setting, pharmacology, safety, clinical
decision-making, and nursing interventions. All questions are professor-verified and A+
graded, making this the latest and most accurate guide for students ready to earn the Green
Light and pass the NCLEX confidently.
Section 2: Exam Questions and Answers
Virtual ATI Predictor Green Light Test A
Question 1: A nurse is caring for a client at 33 weeks of gestation following an
amniocentesis. Which complication should the nurse monitor for?
A) Vomiting
B) Hypertension
C) Epigastric pain
D) Contractions
Correct Answer: D) Contractions
Rationale: Amniocentesis can stimulate uterine contractions, risking preterm labor. Vomiting
(A) and epigastric pain (C) are unrelated, and hypertension (B) may indicate preeclampsia,
not directly tied to the procedure.
Question 2: A nurse is teaching an older adult client about promoting nighttime sleep. Which
instruction should be included?
A) Stay in bed for 1 hr if unable to sleep
B) Take a 1 hr nap during the day
C) Perform exercises before bedtime
D) Eat a light snack before bedtime
Correct Answer: D) Eat a light snack before bedtime
Rationale: A light snack stabilizes blood sugar, promoting sleep. Staying in bed (A)
increases anxiety, napping (B) disrupts sleep cycles, and exercise (C) is stimulating.
Question 3: A nurse is assessing a client with acute angle-closure glaucoma. Which finding
is expected?
,A) Increased light perception
B) Reddened cornea
C) Severe periocular pain
D) Gray cast sclera
Correct Answer: C) Severe periocular pain
Rationale: Acute angle-closure glaucoma causes severe eye pain due to increased intraocular
pressure. Light perception (A) decreases, cornea (B) may cloud, and sclera (D) is unaffected.
Question 4: A nurse is caring for a client with deep vein thrombosis (DVT). Which action
should be taken?
A) Position the affected extremity lower than the heart
B) Withhold heparin if PTT is twice the normal range
C) Administer acetaminophen IV
D) Massage the affected extremity every 4 hr
Correct Answer: B) Withhold heparin if PTT is twice the normal range
Rationale: Heparin is withheld if PTT exceeds 2x normal (30–40 sec) to prevent bleeding.
Lowering the extremity (A) worsens swelling, acetaminophen (C) is oral, and massage (D)
risks emboli.
Question 5: A nurse is providing discharge teaching to a client with chronic kidney disease
on hemodialysis. Which instruction should be included?
A) Eat 1 g/kg of protein per day
B) Take magnesium hydroxide for indigestion
C) Drink at least 3 L of fluid daily
D) Consume high-potassium foods
Correct Answer: A) Eat 1 g/kg of protein per day
Rationale: Hemodialysis patients need 1 g/kg protein to meet nutritional needs. Magnesium
hydroxide (B) risks toxicity, fluid (C) is restricted, and potassium (D) is limited.
Question 6: A nurse is caring for a client who is febrile and applies a cooling blanket. Which
finding indicates an adverse reaction?
A) Flushing
B) Tachycardia
C) Restlessness
D) Shivering
Correct Answer: D) Shivering
Rationale: Shivering indicates the body is fighting the cooling blanket, raising temperature.
Flushing (A), tachycardia (B), and restlessness (C) are non-specific.
Question 7: A nurse is admitting a client who is 1 week postpartum and reports excessive
vaginal bleeding. The nurse and client speak different languages. Which action should the
nurse take to gather data?
A) Have the client’s child translate
B) Allow the client’s partner to translate
C) Request a female interpreter through the facility
D) Ask a nursing student who speaks the client’s language
Correct Answer: C) Request a female interpreter through the facility
Rationale: A professional interpreter ensures accuracy and privacy, especially for sensitive
issues. Family (A, B) may bias responses, and students (D) lack training.
,Question 8: A nurse is reviewing assessment data. Which client should be referred to a
dietitian?
A) Older adult with BMI of 24
B) Client with a nonhealing leg ulcer
C) Older adult with presbyopia
D) Client with albumin level of 3.7 g/dL
Correct Answer: B) Client with a nonhealing leg ulcer
Rationale: Nonhealing ulcers require nutritional support for wound healing. BMI 24 (A) is
normal, presbyopia (C) is age-related, and albumin 3.7 (D) is within normal (3.4–5.4).
Question 9: A nurse is caring for a client receiving intermittent enteral feedings. Which
factor places the client at risk for aspiration?
A) Sitting in high-Fowler’s position during feeding
B) History of gastroesophageal reflux disease
C) Receiving a high osmolarity formula
D) Residual of 65 mL 1 hr postprandial
Correct Answer: B) History of gastroesophageal reflux disease
Rationale: GERD increases aspiration risk due to reflux. High-Fowler’s (A) reduces risk,
high osmolarity (C) causes diarrhea, and 65 mL residual (D) is acceptable.
Question 10: A nurse is providing prenatal teaching to a client at 12 weeks of gestation.
Which screening test should the client expect at 16 weeks?
A) Chorionic villus sampling
B) Cervical cultures for chlamydia
C) Nonstress test
D) Maternal serum alpha-fetoprotein
Correct Answer: D) Maternal serum alpha-fetoprotein
Rationale: MSAFP is screened at 16–18 weeks for neural tube defects. CVS (A) is at 8–12
weeks, chlamydia (B) at first visit, and NST (C) at 28 weeks.
Question 11: A nurse is caring for a client with a new colostomy. Which statement by the
client indicates a need for further teaching?
A) “I should change the pouch every 5–7 days.”
B) “I can eat high-fiber foods like vegetables.”
C) “I should drink 2–3 L of fluid daily.”
D) “I will irrigate my colostomy daily.”
Correct Answer: D) I will irrigate my colostomy daily.
Rationale: Routine irrigation is unnecessary for most colostomies and may cause
dependency. Pouch changes (A), high-fiber diet (B), and fluid intake (C) are correct.
Question 12: A nurse is assessing a client with suspected appendicitis. Which finding should
the nurse report immediately?
A) Rebound tenderness
B) Flatulence
C) Low-grade fever
D) Anorexia
Correct Answer: A) Rebound tenderness
Rationale: Rebound tenderness indicates peritoneal irritation, suggesting possible rupture.
Flatulence (B), fever (C), and anorexia (D) are common but less urgent.
, Question 13: A nurse is administering insulin glargine to a client with type 1 diabetes. When
is the best time to administer this medication?
A) 30 minutes before breakfast
B) Immediately after dinner
C) At bedtime
D) With the first bite of a meal
Correct Answer: C) At bedtime
Rationale: Insulin glargine, a long-acting insulin, is typically given at bedtime for consistent
glucose control. Other times (A, B, D) are for rapid-acting insulins.
Question 14: A nurse is caring for a client with a history of seizures. Which medication
should the nurse anticipate administering?
A) Phenytoin
B) Metoprolol
C) Lisinopril
D) Warfarin
Correct Answer: A) Phenytoin
Rationale: Phenytoin is an anticonvulsant used for seizure control. Metoprolol (B) and
lisinopril (C) treat hypertension, and warfarin (D) is an anticoagulant.
Question 15: A nurse is teaching a client about warfarin therapy. Which statement indicates
understanding?
A) “I can eat as much spinach as I want.”
B) “I should use a soft toothbrush.”
C) “I will take my dose in the morning.”
D) “I don’t need regular blood tests.”
Correct Answer: **B) I should use a soft toothbrush.”
Rationale: Warfarin increases bleeding risk; a soft toothbrush prevents gum bleeding.
Spinach (A) affects INR, dosing time (C) is flexible, and blood tests (D) are required.
Question 16: A nurse is caring for a client with heart failure. Which finding indicates
worsening condition?
A) Weight loss of 2 kg in 1 week
B) Decreased dyspnea on exertion
C) Crackles in bilateral lung bases
D) Heart rate of 80 bpm
Correct Answer: C) Crackles in bilateral lung bases
Rationale: Crackles indicate pulmonary edema, a sign of worsening heart failure. Weight
loss (A) and reduced dyspnea (B) suggest improvement, and HR 80 (D) is normal.
Question 17: A nurse is preparing to administer a blood transfusion. Which action should be
taken first?
A) Verify the client’s identity with two nurses
B) Check the blood type and Rh factor
C) Start the transfusion at 10 mL/hr
D) Obtain vital signs
Correct Answer: A) Verify the client’s identity with two nurses
Rationale: Verifying identity prevents transfusion errors. Blood type (B) follows, transfusion
rate (C) is later, and vital signs (D) are baseline after verification.
