Page 1 of 463
WGU D115 ADVANCED PATHOPHYSIOLOGY OA EXAM A,
B AND STUDY GUIDE COMPLETE 800 QUESTIONS AND
WELL ELABORATED ANSWERS JUST RELEASED
WGU D115 ADVANCED PATHOPHYSIOLOGY OA EXAM A
QUESTION: Age and the admission of the Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) are important diagnostic
factors in TBI. Which GCS score describes a severe TBI?
A) 13-15
B) 12-13
C) 9-12
D) 3-8 - ANSWER✔✔D) 3-8
The GCS is scored between 3 and 15, 3 being the worst and 15 the best.
QUESTION: Which term describes recurrent, intrusive thoughts or impulses?
A) Hallucinations
B) Compulsions
C) Obsessions
Obsessions are recurrent and persistent thoughts, impulses, or images that cause distressing
emotions such as anxiety or disgust.
D) Delusions - ANSWER✔✔C) Obsessions
, Page 2 of 463
Obsessions are recurrent and persistent thoughts, impulses, or images that cause distressing
emotions such as anxiety or disgust.
QUESTION: During an intake interview with a 26-year-old man diagnosed with generalized
anxiety disorder, the FNP might observe what type of behavior?
A) An inflated sense of self
B) Constant relation to future events
C) Inability to concentrate and irritability when questioned
Impaired concentration and irritability are major characteristics of GAD.
D) Nervousness and fear of the FNP during the interview - ANSWER✔✔C) Inability to
concentrate and irritability when questioned
Impaired concentration and irritability are major characteristics of GAD.
QUESTION: The FNP would expect which symptoms in a patient with a diagnosis of
schizophrenia?
A) High energy with varying sleep patterns and non stop conversation.
B) Extreme and frequent mood swings with hyperactivity and difficulty concentrating.
C) Paranoia, delusions, hallucinations, and diminished self-care.
D) Anti-social behavior, manipulative behavior, charisma, and ability to lie convincingly. -
ANSWER✔✔C) Paranoia, delusions, hallucinations, and diminished self-care.
, Page 3 of 463
The characteristics of schizophrenia are paranoia, delusions, tangential thoughts,
suspiciousness, disorganized behavior, and hallucinations.
QUESTION: The FNP is seeing a 10 year old child with complaints of otalgia and muffled
hearing. The mother states the child recently recovered from an upper respiratory infection. The
FNP suspects that this child has:
A) Acute otitis media
B) Acute otitis externa
C) Cholesteatoma
D) Chronic otitis media - ANSWER✔✔A) Acute otitis media
The classic presentation of otitis media is otalgia, muffled hearing, popping sensation, and a
recent history of a cold or flare up of allergic rhinitis.
What is the most common indication for genetic counseling?
A) maternal age
B) drug exposure during the first trimester?
C) Increased maternal alpha-fetoprotein
D) history of previous still birth - ANSWER✔✔A) maternal age
The largest group of women who benefit from genetic counseling are those over the age of 35
, Page 4 of 463
QUESTION: The FNP schedules a 38-year-old primigravida (first time pregnancy) for an
amniocentesis at 16 weeks gestation. The FNP would explain that the purpose of this procedure
is to:
A) Assess for the possibility of twins
B) Deterime the biliruben level
C) Perform genetic studies
D) Assess L/S ratio - ANSWER✔✔C) Perform genetic studies
This womans age puts her at risk for Down Syndrome
QUESTION: In the most commonly seen form of Turner Syndrome, how is the X chromosome
affected?
A) Each cell has only one X chromosome?
B) Some cells have two X chromsomes, while the other cells have only one.
C) Each cell has two X chromsomes, but part of the chromosome is missing.
D) Each cell has an extra X chromosome - ANSWER✔✔A) Each cell has only one X chromsome
45% of persons with Turner Syndrome have monosomy X meaning there is only one copy of the
X chromosome in each cell.
QUESTION: The FNP is assessing a newborn who is demonstrating a high-pitched cry,
microcephaly, hypertelorism, hypotonia, and a low birth weight. The FNP would suspect which
of the following genetic conditions?
WGU D115 ADVANCED PATHOPHYSIOLOGY OA EXAM A,
B AND STUDY GUIDE COMPLETE 800 QUESTIONS AND
WELL ELABORATED ANSWERS JUST RELEASED
WGU D115 ADVANCED PATHOPHYSIOLOGY OA EXAM A
QUESTION: Age and the admission of the Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) are important diagnostic
factors in TBI. Which GCS score describes a severe TBI?
A) 13-15
B) 12-13
C) 9-12
D) 3-8 - ANSWER✔✔D) 3-8
The GCS is scored between 3 and 15, 3 being the worst and 15 the best.
QUESTION: Which term describes recurrent, intrusive thoughts or impulses?
A) Hallucinations
B) Compulsions
C) Obsessions
Obsessions are recurrent and persistent thoughts, impulses, or images that cause distressing
emotions such as anxiety or disgust.
D) Delusions - ANSWER✔✔C) Obsessions
, Page 2 of 463
Obsessions are recurrent and persistent thoughts, impulses, or images that cause distressing
emotions such as anxiety or disgust.
QUESTION: During an intake interview with a 26-year-old man diagnosed with generalized
anxiety disorder, the FNP might observe what type of behavior?
A) An inflated sense of self
B) Constant relation to future events
C) Inability to concentrate and irritability when questioned
Impaired concentration and irritability are major characteristics of GAD.
D) Nervousness and fear of the FNP during the interview - ANSWER✔✔C) Inability to
concentrate and irritability when questioned
Impaired concentration and irritability are major characteristics of GAD.
QUESTION: The FNP would expect which symptoms in a patient with a diagnosis of
schizophrenia?
A) High energy with varying sleep patterns and non stop conversation.
B) Extreme and frequent mood swings with hyperactivity and difficulty concentrating.
C) Paranoia, delusions, hallucinations, and diminished self-care.
D) Anti-social behavior, manipulative behavior, charisma, and ability to lie convincingly. -
ANSWER✔✔C) Paranoia, delusions, hallucinations, and diminished self-care.
, Page 3 of 463
The characteristics of schizophrenia are paranoia, delusions, tangential thoughts,
suspiciousness, disorganized behavior, and hallucinations.
QUESTION: The FNP is seeing a 10 year old child with complaints of otalgia and muffled
hearing. The mother states the child recently recovered from an upper respiratory infection. The
FNP suspects that this child has:
A) Acute otitis media
B) Acute otitis externa
C) Cholesteatoma
D) Chronic otitis media - ANSWER✔✔A) Acute otitis media
The classic presentation of otitis media is otalgia, muffled hearing, popping sensation, and a
recent history of a cold or flare up of allergic rhinitis.
What is the most common indication for genetic counseling?
A) maternal age
B) drug exposure during the first trimester?
C) Increased maternal alpha-fetoprotein
D) history of previous still birth - ANSWER✔✔A) maternal age
The largest group of women who benefit from genetic counseling are those over the age of 35
, Page 4 of 463
QUESTION: The FNP schedules a 38-year-old primigravida (first time pregnancy) for an
amniocentesis at 16 weeks gestation. The FNP would explain that the purpose of this procedure
is to:
A) Assess for the possibility of twins
B) Deterime the biliruben level
C) Perform genetic studies
D) Assess L/S ratio - ANSWER✔✔C) Perform genetic studies
This womans age puts her at risk for Down Syndrome
QUESTION: In the most commonly seen form of Turner Syndrome, how is the X chromosome
affected?
A) Each cell has only one X chromosome?
B) Some cells have two X chromsomes, while the other cells have only one.
C) Each cell has two X chromsomes, but part of the chromosome is missing.
D) Each cell has an extra X chromosome - ANSWER✔✔A) Each cell has only one X chromsome
45% of persons with Turner Syndrome have monosomy X meaning there is only one copy of the
X chromosome in each cell.
QUESTION: The FNP is assessing a newborn who is demonstrating a high-pitched cry,
microcephaly, hypertelorism, hypotonia, and a low birth weight. The FNP would suspect which
of the following genetic conditions?
