ATI LPN EXIT EXAM (2026 UPDATED VERSION) – COMPLETE TEST BANK WITH
CORRECT ANSWERS AND DETAILED RATIONALES/GRADE A+ ASSURED
Question 1
A nurse is performing a physical assessment on a client who is at 8 weeks of gestation. The nurse
notes that the client's vagina and vulva have a purplish-blue discoloration. Which of the
following terms should the nurse use to document this finding?
A) Chloasma
B) Hegar's sign
C) Ballottement
D) Chadwick's sign
E) Goodell's sign
Correct Answer: D) Chadwick's sign
Rationale: Chadwick's sign is a presumptive sign of pregnancy characterized by a violet-
bluish discoloration of the vaginal mucosa and cervix. This occurs due to increased
vascularity and hyperemia in the pelvic area. Chloasma refers to the "mask of pregnancy"
(hyperpigmentation of the face). Hegar's sign is the softening of the lower uterine segment.
Ballottement is a technique used to feel the fetus rebound when the cervix is tapped.
Goodell's sign is the softening of the cervical tip.
Question 2
A nurse is collecting data from a child who is suspected of having torticollis. Which of the
following clinical manifestations should the nurse expect to find?
A) Excessive drooling and difficulty swallowing
B) Head tilted to one side with the chin rotated to the opposite side
C) Hyperextension of the neck and spine (opisthotonos)
D) Swelling of the parotid glands
E) Numbness and tingling in the upper extremities
Correct Answer: B) Head tilted to one side with the chin rotated to the opposite side
Rationale: Torticollis (wryneck) is characterized by a persistent contraction of the neck
muscles, causing the head to tilt to one side. This is often accompanied by neck muscle pain
and an inability to turn the head toward the neutral position. Manifestations include the
, 2
head tilting to one side, chin rotation to the opposite side, and a limited range of motion of
the cervical spine.
Question 3
A nurse is performing a musculoskeletal examination on a client who reports chronic back pain
and has a visible deformity of the spinal column. The nurse notes an exaggerated posterior
curvature of the thoracic spine (often referred to as a "hump"). Which of the following conditions
is the client experiencing?
A) Scoliosis
B) Lordosis
C) Kyphosis
D) Ankylosing spondylitis
E) Spondylolisthesis
Correct Answer: C) Kyphosis
Rationale: Kyphosis is an exaggerated posterior curvature of the thoracic spine, commonly
known as "hunchback" or "kuba." It is frequently seen in older adults due to osteoporosis
or in adolescents due to poor posture. Scoliosis is a lateral (sideways) curvature. Lordosis is
an exaggerated inward curvature of the lumbar spine ("swayback").
Question 4
A nurse is reviewing the immunization records of a 9-year-old child during a routine physical
exam. Which of the following findings should indicate to the nurse that the child is NOT current
with the minimum required immunizations?
A) The child has received two doses of the Varicella vaccine.
B) The child has received four doses of the DTaP vaccine.
C) The child has received only one dose of the Measles, Mumps, and Rubella (MMR) vaccine.
D) The child has received three doses of the Hepatitis B vaccine.
E) The child has received one dose of the Meningococcal vaccine.
Correct Answer: C) The child has received only one dose of the Measles, Mumps, and
Rubella (MMR) vaccine.
Rationale: According to standard immunization schedules, children should receive two
, 3
doses of the MMR vaccine. The first dose is typically given at 12–15 months of age, and the
second dose is given between 4–6 years of age. A 9-year-old with only one dose is considered
non-compliant with the minimum requirements.
Question 5
A nurse is collecting data from a client who is 18 hours postpartum. The nurse identifies the
client is in the "taking-in phase" of maternal adjustment. Which of the following behaviors
should the nurse expect?
A) The client performs all newborn care independently.
B) The client is focused on reconnecting with her partner.
C) The client is eager to review and talk about her birth experience.
D) The client shows high tolerance for physical discomforts.
E) The client expresses anxiety about her ability to be a good parent.
Correct Answer: C) The eagerness to review the birth experience
Rationale: The "taking-in" phase occurs during the first 24–48 hours postpartum. During
this time, the mother is self-focused, dependent on others for care, and needs to process the
birth experience by talking about it repeatedly. The "taking-hold" phase follows, where the
mother becomes more independent and focuses on newborn care. Reconnecting with the
partner and mastering self-care are characteristics of later phases.
Question 6
A nurse is reinforcing teaching with a client who is postpartum about newborn safety in the
facility. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?
A) "It is safe to carry your newborn in your arms when walking to the nursery."
B) "You should feel free to leave the newborn in the bassinet while you use the bathroom."
C) "Alert the staff immediately if any of your newborn's identification bands are missing."
D) "Ask the nurses to show their driver's license before they take the baby."
E) "Keep the baby's bassinet as close to the door as possible for quick exit."
Correct Answer: C) "Alert the staff if any of your newborn's identification bands are
missing."
Rationale: Newborn safety and abduction prevention are critical. Identification bands
, 4
(usually matching the mother’s) must be on the baby at all times. If a band is missing, it
must be replaced immediately. Newborns should always be transported in their bassinets,
not carried in arms (to prevent falls). Mothers should not leave infants unattended; they
should call a nurse if they cannot supervise the child.
Question 7
A nurse is reinforcing teaching with an adolescent male client regarding testicular self-
examination (TSE). Which of the following statements by the client indicates an understanding
of the teaching?
A) "I should perform this exam once every six months."
B) "The best time to perform the exam is before a cold shower."
C) "I should expect one testicle to be slightly larger than the other."
D) "I should feel for a hard, pea-sized lump on the front of the testicle."
E) "I should only worry if I feel pain during the examination."
Correct Answer: C) "I should expect one testicle to be larger than the other"
Rationale: It is a normal anatomical finding for one testicle (usually the right) to be slightly
larger than the other, and for one to hang lower. TSE should be performed monthly,
preferably after a warm bath or shower when the scrotum is relaxed. Hard lumps or
changes in consistency should be reported, but asymmetrical size is generally normal.
Question 8
A nurse is caring for a client who has dehydration due to diarrhea. Which of the following
clinical findings is the priority for the nurse to report to the provider?
A) Serum creatinine 1.0 mg/dL
B) Blood Urea Nitrogen (BUN) 18 mg/dL
C) Urine output 12 mL/hr
D) Urine specific gravity 1.020
E) Capillary refill of 2 seconds
Correct Answer: C) Urine output 12 ml/hr.
Rationale: Normal urine output should be at least 30 mL/hr. An output of 12 mL/hr
indicates oliguria, which suggests severe dehydration and potential acute kidney injury.
CORRECT ANSWERS AND DETAILED RATIONALES/GRADE A+ ASSURED
Question 1
A nurse is performing a physical assessment on a client who is at 8 weeks of gestation. The nurse
notes that the client's vagina and vulva have a purplish-blue discoloration. Which of the
following terms should the nurse use to document this finding?
A) Chloasma
B) Hegar's sign
C) Ballottement
D) Chadwick's sign
E) Goodell's sign
Correct Answer: D) Chadwick's sign
Rationale: Chadwick's sign is a presumptive sign of pregnancy characterized by a violet-
bluish discoloration of the vaginal mucosa and cervix. This occurs due to increased
vascularity and hyperemia in the pelvic area. Chloasma refers to the "mask of pregnancy"
(hyperpigmentation of the face). Hegar's sign is the softening of the lower uterine segment.
Ballottement is a technique used to feel the fetus rebound when the cervix is tapped.
Goodell's sign is the softening of the cervical tip.
Question 2
A nurse is collecting data from a child who is suspected of having torticollis. Which of the
following clinical manifestations should the nurse expect to find?
A) Excessive drooling and difficulty swallowing
B) Head tilted to one side with the chin rotated to the opposite side
C) Hyperextension of the neck and spine (opisthotonos)
D) Swelling of the parotid glands
E) Numbness and tingling in the upper extremities
Correct Answer: B) Head tilted to one side with the chin rotated to the opposite side
Rationale: Torticollis (wryneck) is characterized by a persistent contraction of the neck
muscles, causing the head to tilt to one side. This is often accompanied by neck muscle pain
and an inability to turn the head toward the neutral position. Manifestations include the
, 2
head tilting to one side, chin rotation to the opposite side, and a limited range of motion of
the cervical spine.
Question 3
A nurse is performing a musculoskeletal examination on a client who reports chronic back pain
and has a visible deformity of the spinal column. The nurse notes an exaggerated posterior
curvature of the thoracic spine (often referred to as a "hump"). Which of the following conditions
is the client experiencing?
A) Scoliosis
B) Lordosis
C) Kyphosis
D) Ankylosing spondylitis
E) Spondylolisthesis
Correct Answer: C) Kyphosis
Rationale: Kyphosis is an exaggerated posterior curvature of the thoracic spine, commonly
known as "hunchback" or "kuba." It is frequently seen in older adults due to osteoporosis
or in adolescents due to poor posture. Scoliosis is a lateral (sideways) curvature. Lordosis is
an exaggerated inward curvature of the lumbar spine ("swayback").
Question 4
A nurse is reviewing the immunization records of a 9-year-old child during a routine physical
exam. Which of the following findings should indicate to the nurse that the child is NOT current
with the minimum required immunizations?
A) The child has received two doses of the Varicella vaccine.
B) The child has received four doses of the DTaP vaccine.
C) The child has received only one dose of the Measles, Mumps, and Rubella (MMR) vaccine.
D) The child has received three doses of the Hepatitis B vaccine.
E) The child has received one dose of the Meningococcal vaccine.
Correct Answer: C) The child has received only one dose of the Measles, Mumps, and
Rubella (MMR) vaccine.
Rationale: According to standard immunization schedules, children should receive two
, 3
doses of the MMR vaccine. The first dose is typically given at 12–15 months of age, and the
second dose is given between 4–6 years of age. A 9-year-old with only one dose is considered
non-compliant with the minimum requirements.
Question 5
A nurse is collecting data from a client who is 18 hours postpartum. The nurse identifies the
client is in the "taking-in phase" of maternal adjustment. Which of the following behaviors
should the nurse expect?
A) The client performs all newborn care independently.
B) The client is focused on reconnecting with her partner.
C) The client is eager to review and talk about her birth experience.
D) The client shows high tolerance for physical discomforts.
E) The client expresses anxiety about her ability to be a good parent.
Correct Answer: C) The eagerness to review the birth experience
Rationale: The "taking-in" phase occurs during the first 24–48 hours postpartum. During
this time, the mother is self-focused, dependent on others for care, and needs to process the
birth experience by talking about it repeatedly. The "taking-hold" phase follows, where the
mother becomes more independent and focuses on newborn care. Reconnecting with the
partner and mastering self-care are characteristics of later phases.
Question 6
A nurse is reinforcing teaching with a client who is postpartum about newborn safety in the
facility. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?
A) "It is safe to carry your newborn in your arms when walking to the nursery."
B) "You should feel free to leave the newborn in the bassinet while you use the bathroom."
C) "Alert the staff immediately if any of your newborn's identification bands are missing."
D) "Ask the nurses to show their driver's license before they take the baby."
E) "Keep the baby's bassinet as close to the door as possible for quick exit."
Correct Answer: C) "Alert the staff if any of your newborn's identification bands are
missing."
Rationale: Newborn safety and abduction prevention are critical. Identification bands
, 4
(usually matching the mother’s) must be on the baby at all times. If a band is missing, it
must be replaced immediately. Newborns should always be transported in their bassinets,
not carried in arms (to prevent falls). Mothers should not leave infants unattended; they
should call a nurse if they cannot supervise the child.
Question 7
A nurse is reinforcing teaching with an adolescent male client regarding testicular self-
examination (TSE). Which of the following statements by the client indicates an understanding
of the teaching?
A) "I should perform this exam once every six months."
B) "The best time to perform the exam is before a cold shower."
C) "I should expect one testicle to be slightly larger than the other."
D) "I should feel for a hard, pea-sized lump on the front of the testicle."
E) "I should only worry if I feel pain during the examination."
Correct Answer: C) "I should expect one testicle to be larger than the other"
Rationale: It is a normal anatomical finding for one testicle (usually the right) to be slightly
larger than the other, and for one to hang lower. TSE should be performed monthly,
preferably after a warm bath or shower when the scrotum is relaxed. Hard lumps or
changes in consistency should be reported, but asymmetrical size is generally normal.
Question 8
A nurse is caring for a client who has dehydration due to diarrhea. Which of the following
clinical findings is the priority for the nurse to report to the provider?
A) Serum creatinine 1.0 mg/dL
B) Blood Urea Nitrogen (BUN) 18 mg/dL
C) Urine output 12 mL/hr
D) Urine specific gravity 1.020
E) Capillary refill of 2 seconds
Correct Answer: C) Urine output 12 ml/hr.
Rationale: Normal urine output should be at least 30 mL/hr. An output of 12 mL/hr
indicates oliguria, which suggests severe dehydration and potential acute kidney injury.
