HEALTH ASSESSEMENT PRACTICE QUIZ
2025 COMPREHENSIVE QUESTIONS
AND VERIFIED ANSWERS/SOLUTIONS
|MULTIPLE CHOICES/NEWEST
UPDATE/GRADE A+ ASSURED
The RN is caring for an older client who recently experienced a fracture pelvis from a fall. Which assessment
finding is most important for the RN to report the healthcare provider?
-Lower back pain
-Headache of 7 on scale of 1 to 10
-Blood pressure of 140/98
-Dyspnea - ANSWERSDyspnea
Rationale: A client with a large bone fracture is at risk for intramedullary fat leaking into the blood stream and
becoming embolic. Dyspnea is an indication of fat embolism to the lungs and should be reported to the
healthcare provider immediately.
The registered nurse (RN) notifies the spouse of a client who was admitted to hospice with shallow
respirations, of a change in the client's condition. Over the past hour, the client's respiratory pattern has
changed to a Cheyne Stokes pattern.After receiving this information, the client's spouse begins vacuuming
around the bed. Which stage of grief is the spouse displaying during the visit?
-Acceptance.
-Denial.
-Bargaining.
-Depression. - ANSWERSDenial.
, Rationale: The spouse is exhibiting the first stage of denial of Kubler-Ross's grief model by ignoring that the
client's death is imminent.
A male client is admitted after falling from his bed. The HCP tells the family that he has an incomplete fracture
of the humerus. The family ask the RN what this means. Which type of fracture should the RN explain from
these findings?
-Straight fracture line that is also a simple, closed fracture
-Nondisplaced fracture line that wraps around the bone
-A complete fracture that also punctures the skin
-A fracture that bends or splinters part of the bone - ANSWERSA fracture that bends or splinters part of the
bone
Rationale: An incomplete fracture occurs when part of the bone is splintered (broken) and it has not gone
completely through the thickness of the bone.
A female client calls the clinic and talks with the registered nurse (RN) to inquire about a possible reaction
after taking amoxicillin for 5 days. She reports having vaginal discomfort, itching, and a white discharge. The
RN should discuss which action with the client?
-Discontinue the antibiotic because original symptoms have subsided.
-Continue taking medication until finished until the symptoms subside.
-Consult with healthcare provider about another treatment for this effect.
-Use an over-the-counter (OTC) vaginal wash to flush out the secretions. - ANSWERSConsult with healthcare
provider about another treatment for this effect.
Rationale: A superinfection with normal flora yeast may occur during antibiotic therapy. If suspected, the new
onset of findings should be reported to the healthcare provider for another prescribed treatment to treat the
superinfection.
A client who uses ipratropium reports having nausea, blurred vision, headaches, and insomnia after using the
inhaler. Which action should the RN implement first?
2025 COMPREHENSIVE QUESTIONS
AND VERIFIED ANSWERS/SOLUTIONS
|MULTIPLE CHOICES/NEWEST
UPDATE/GRADE A+ ASSURED
The RN is caring for an older client who recently experienced a fracture pelvis from a fall. Which assessment
finding is most important for the RN to report the healthcare provider?
-Lower back pain
-Headache of 7 on scale of 1 to 10
-Blood pressure of 140/98
-Dyspnea - ANSWERSDyspnea
Rationale: A client with a large bone fracture is at risk for intramedullary fat leaking into the blood stream and
becoming embolic. Dyspnea is an indication of fat embolism to the lungs and should be reported to the
healthcare provider immediately.
The registered nurse (RN) notifies the spouse of a client who was admitted to hospice with shallow
respirations, of a change in the client's condition. Over the past hour, the client's respiratory pattern has
changed to a Cheyne Stokes pattern.After receiving this information, the client's spouse begins vacuuming
around the bed. Which stage of grief is the spouse displaying during the visit?
-Acceptance.
-Denial.
-Bargaining.
-Depression. - ANSWERSDenial.
, Rationale: The spouse is exhibiting the first stage of denial of Kubler-Ross's grief model by ignoring that the
client's death is imminent.
A male client is admitted after falling from his bed. The HCP tells the family that he has an incomplete fracture
of the humerus. The family ask the RN what this means. Which type of fracture should the RN explain from
these findings?
-Straight fracture line that is also a simple, closed fracture
-Nondisplaced fracture line that wraps around the bone
-A complete fracture that also punctures the skin
-A fracture that bends or splinters part of the bone - ANSWERSA fracture that bends or splinters part of the
bone
Rationale: An incomplete fracture occurs when part of the bone is splintered (broken) and it has not gone
completely through the thickness of the bone.
A female client calls the clinic and talks with the registered nurse (RN) to inquire about a possible reaction
after taking amoxicillin for 5 days. She reports having vaginal discomfort, itching, and a white discharge. The
RN should discuss which action with the client?
-Discontinue the antibiotic because original symptoms have subsided.
-Continue taking medication until finished until the symptoms subside.
-Consult with healthcare provider about another treatment for this effect.
-Use an over-the-counter (OTC) vaginal wash to flush out the secretions. - ANSWERSConsult with healthcare
provider about another treatment for this effect.
Rationale: A superinfection with normal flora yeast may occur during antibiotic therapy. If suspected, the new
onset of findings should be reported to the healthcare provider for another prescribed treatment to treat the
superinfection.
A client who uses ipratropium reports having nausea, blurred vision, headaches, and insomnia after using the
inhaler. Which action should the RN implement first?
