PN 2005 FINAL EXAM PRACTICE QUESTIONS
AND CORRECT DETAILED ANSWERS WITH
RATIONALES 2025 (VERIFIED ANSWERS)
1. A nurse is caring for a client who has a new prescription for lisinopril. Which
of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider immediately?
A. Dry cough
B. Headache
C. Dizziness
D. Swelling of the tongue
→ Swelling of the tongue may indicate angioedema, a life-threatening adverse
effect of ACE inhibitors.
2. Which of the following is the best action for the nurse to take before
administering digoxin?
A. Count the client’s respiratory rate
B. Count the client’s apical pulse for one full minute
C. Take the client’s blood pressure
D. Assess the client’s temperature
,→ Digoxin can cause bradycardia; the apical pulse must be checked and held if
below 60 bpm.
3. A client with a history of heart failure is receiving furosemide. What is the
most important lab value to monitor?
A. Calcium
B. Potassium
C. Magnesium
D. Sodium
→ Furosemide is a loop diuretic that can cause hypokalemia, increasing risk of
arrhythmias.
4. Which dietary instruction should be provided to a client taking warfarin?
A. Increase intake of vitamin K-rich foods
B. Avoid protein-rich foods
C. Maintain a consistent intake of vitamin K
D. Limit fluid intake
→ Consistency in vitamin K intake helps maintain therapeutic INR levels.
5. A nurse is reinforcing teaching for a client diagnosed with type 1 diabetes
mellitus. Which statement by the client indicates an understanding of the
teaching?
A. “I can stop taking insulin when I feel better.”
B. “I should skip meals if I’m not hungry.”
,C. “I will rotate my insulin injection sites.”
D. “I’ll take my insulin only if my blood sugar is high.”
→ Rotating injection sites prevents lipodystrophy and improves insulin
absorption.
6. Which finding in a newborn should be reported to the provider?
A. Caput succedaneum
B. Nasal flaring
C. Acrocyanosis
D. Positive Babinski reflex
→ Nasal flaring may indicate respiratory distress, requiring immediate
attention.
7. A client with schizophrenia is experiencing auditory hallucinations. What is
the best response by the nurse?
A. “You need to ignore those voices.”
B. “I don’t hear the voices, but I understand they are real to you.”
C. “Those voices are not real, stop listening to them.”
D. “You’ll feel better if you rest.”
→ This response acknowledges the client’s perception while maintaining reality.
8. Which precaution should the nurse use when caring for a client with
tuberculosis?
A. Contact precautions
, B. Airborne precautions
C. Droplet precautions
D. Standard precautions only
→ TB is transmitted via airborne particles; N95 mask and negative pressure
room are required.
9. The nurse is caring for a client post-op following abdominal surgery. Which
finding requires immediate intervention?
A. Complaints of thirst
B. Pain score of 7
C. Absent bowel sounds and firm, distended abdomen
D. Blood pressure of 110/70 mm Hg
→ These signs suggest paralytic ileus or bowel obstruction, which can be life-
threatening.
10. Which client should the nurse assess first after receiving the morning shift
report?
A. Client with COPD requesting a PRN nebulizer
B. Client with a stage II pressure injury needing dressing change
C. Client who needs help ambulating
D. Client post-op day one reporting chest pain and shortness of breath
→ Chest pain and shortness of breath suggest a possible pulmonary embolism
and require immediate assessment.
AND CORRECT DETAILED ANSWERS WITH
RATIONALES 2025 (VERIFIED ANSWERS)
1. A nurse is caring for a client who has a new prescription for lisinopril. Which
of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider immediately?
A. Dry cough
B. Headache
C. Dizziness
D. Swelling of the tongue
→ Swelling of the tongue may indicate angioedema, a life-threatening adverse
effect of ACE inhibitors.
2. Which of the following is the best action for the nurse to take before
administering digoxin?
A. Count the client’s respiratory rate
B. Count the client’s apical pulse for one full minute
C. Take the client’s blood pressure
D. Assess the client’s temperature
,→ Digoxin can cause bradycardia; the apical pulse must be checked and held if
below 60 bpm.
3. A client with a history of heart failure is receiving furosemide. What is the
most important lab value to monitor?
A. Calcium
B. Potassium
C. Magnesium
D. Sodium
→ Furosemide is a loop diuretic that can cause hypokalemia, increasing risk of
arrhythmias.
4. Which dietary instruction should be provided to a client taking warfarin?
A. Increase intake of vitamin K-rich foods
B. Avoid protein-rich foods
C. Maintain a consistent intake of vitamin K
D. Limit fluid intake
→ Consistency in vitamin K intake helps maintain therapeutic INR levels.
5. A nurse is reinforcing teaching for a client diagnosed with type 1 diabetes
mellitus. Which statement by the client indicates an understanding of the
teaching?
A. “I can stop taking insulin when I feel better.”
B. “I should skip meals if I’m not hungry.”
,C. “I will rotate my insulin injection sites.”
D. “I’ll take my insulin only if my blood sugar is high.”
→ Rotating injection sites prevents lipodystrophy and improves insulin
absorption.
6. Which finding in a newborn should be reported to the provider?
A. Caput succedaneum
B. Nasal flaring
C. Acrocyanosis
D. Positive Babinski reflex
→ Nasal flaring may indicate respiratory distress, requiring immediate
attention.
7. A client with schizophrenia is experiencing auditory hallucinations. What is
the best response by the nurse?
A. “You need to ignore those voices.”
B. “I don’t hear the voices, but I understand they are real to you.”
C. “Those voices are not real, stop listening to them.”
D. “You’ll feel better if you rest.”
→ This response acknowledges the client’s perception while maintaining reality.
8. Which precaution should the nurse use when caring for a client with
tuberculosis?
A. Contact precautions
, B. Airborne precautions
C. Droplet precautions
D. Standard precautions only
→ TB is transmitted via airborne particles; N95 mask and negative pressure
room are required.
9. The nurse is caring for a client post-op following abdominal surgery. Which
finding requires immediate intervention?
A. Complaints of thirst
B. Pain score of 7
C. Absent bowel sounds and firm, distended abdomen
D. Blood pressure of 110/70 mm Hg
→ These signs suggest paralytic ileus or bowel obstruction, which can be life-
threatening.
10. Which client should the nurse assess first after receiving the morning shift
report?
A. Client with COPD requesting a PRN nebulizer
B. Client with a stage II pressure injury needing dressing change
C. Client who needs help ambulating
D. Client post-op day one reporting chest pain and shortness of breath
→ Chest pain and shortness of breath suggest a possible pulmonary embolism
and require immediate assessment.
