2025
NURS 676 ADVANCED PHARMACOLOGY FINAL EXAM QUESTIONS AND
CORRECT ANSWERS LATEST 2025 COMPLETE A+ SCORE
Question 1
Which of the following adverse effects are less likely in a beta 1 selective blocker?
A. Reflex orthostatic changes
B. Dysrhythmias
C. Decreased triglycerides and cholesterol
D. Impair recovery from hypoglycemic episode
Impair recovery from hypoglycemic episode
Question 2
While taking an angiotensin II receptor blocker (ARB), patients need to avoid certain OTC drugs without
first consulting the provider because? (Select all that apply)
A. Tylenol related to hepatic enzyme competition
B. Cimetidine is metabolized by the CYP 3A4 isoenzymes
C. NSAIDs reduce prostaglandin levels
D. Loratadine can cause toxicity of the ARB to occur
Cimetidine is metabolized by the CYP 3A4 isoenzymes, NSAIDs reduce prostaglandin levels
Question 3
Furosemide is added to a treatment regimen for heart failure that includes digoxin. Monitoring for this
combination includes:
A. Hemoglobin
,2025
B. Serum potassium
C. Blood urea nitrogen
D. Serum glucose
Serum potassium
Question 4
Your patient has just received a diagnosis of migraine headaches. After reviewing the patient's medical
history, you note that the patient uses a beta 2 agonist, albuterol metered dose inhaler intermittently
for asthma. Why would propranolol, a beta blocker, be an inappropriate drug for migraine prophylaxis in
this patient?
A. It may induce cerebral hypotension and hypoperfusing, thus increasing the intensity of her headache
B. It may induce bronchoconstriction or spasm which may result in an asthma attack
C. It is not inappropriate; she may use it without problems
D. It my increase her blood pressure which may result in increased headaches
It may induce bronchoconstriction or spasm which may result in an asthma attack
Question 5
Angiotensin converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitors treat hypertension because they: select all that apply
A. Reduce sodium and water retention
B. Decrease cardiac oxygen demand
C. Decrease vasoconstriction
D. Increase vasodilation
Reduce sodium and water retention, decrease vasoconstriction, and increase vasodilation
Question 6
Because primary hypertension has no identifiable cause, treatment is based on interfering with the
physiological mechanisms that regulate blood pressure. Thiazide diuretics treat hypertension because
they:
A. Decrease the production of aldosterone
B. Deplete body sodium and reduce fluid volume
,2025
C. Increase renin secretion
D. Decrease blood viscosity
Deplete body sodium and reduce fluid volume
Question 7
Adherence to beta blocker therapy may be affected by the medications?
A. Short half-lives requiring twice daily dosing
B. Tendency to elevate lipid levels
C. Tendency to cause hunger
D. Effects on the male genitalia, which may produce impotence
Effects on the male genitalia which may produce impotence
Question 8
Despite good blood pressure, an NP might change a patient's drug from an ACE inhibitor to an ARB
because the ARB?
A. Is stronger than the ACE inhibitor
B. Has no effect on the renal system
C. Reduces sodium and water retention
D. Does not produce a dry hacky cough
Does not produce a dry hacky cough
Question 9
It is known that prescribing an ACEI to patients with diabetes mellitus results in which of the following
benefits?
A. Patients with early rental dysfunction ill see it reverse when on ACE medications
, 2025
B. Patients without renal issues are the only ones who benefit from ACE protection
C. Patients who start these medications never progress to renal nephropathy
D. Patients who have a reduced rate of renal progression but still need to be discontinued when
advanced renal issues are present
Patients who have a reduced rate of renal progression but still need to be discontinued when
advanced renal issues are present
Question 10
A male patients has been diagnosed with hyperlipidemia. Based on his lipid profile, atorvastatin is
prescribed. Rhabdomylosis is a rare but serious adverse response to this drug. He should be told to?
A. Become a vegetarian because this disorder is associated with eating red meat
B. Stop taking the drug if abdominal cramps and diarrhea develop
C. Expect "hot flash" sensations during the first 2 weeks of therapy
D. Report muscle weakness or tenderness and dark urine to his provider immediately
Report muscle weakness or tenderness and dark urine to his provider immediately
Question 11
Scopolamine can be used to prevent the nausea and vomiting associated with motion sickness. The
patient is taught to?
A. Change the transdermal disk daily for maximal effect
B. Swallow a tablet 15 minutes before traveling where motion sickness is possible
C. Apply the transdermal disk at least 4 hours before the antiemetic effect is desired
D. Place the tablet under the tongue and allow it to dissolve
Apply the transdermal disk at least 4 hours before the antiemetic effect is desired
Question 12
Patients who have angina, regardless of class, who are also diabetic should be on?
A. Beta blockers
B. Calcium channel blockers
C. ACE inhibitors
NURS 676 ADVANCED PHARMACOLOGY FINAL EXAM QUESTIONS AND
CORRECT ANSWERS LATEST 2025 COMPLETE A+ SCORE
Question 1
Which of the following adverse effects are less likely in a beta 1 selective blocker?
A. Reflex orthostatic changes
B. Dysrhythmias
C. Decreased triglycerides and cholesterol
D. Impair recovery from hypoglycemic episode
Impair recovery from hypoglycemic episode
Question 2
While taking an angiotensin II receptor blocker (ARB), patients need to avoid certain OTC drugs without
first consulting the provider because? (Select all that apply)
A. Tylenol related to hepatic enzyme competition
B. Cimetidine is metabolized by the CYP 3A4 isoenzymes
C. NSAIDs reduce prostaglandin levels
D. Loratadine can cause toxicity of the ARB to occur
Cimetidine is metabolized by the CYP 3A4 isoenzymes, NSAIDs reduce prostaglandin levels
Question 3
Furosemide is added to a treatment regimen for heart failure that includes digoxin. Monitoring for this
combination includes:
A. Hemoglobin
,2025
B. Serum potassium
C. Blood urea nitrogen
D. Serum glucose
Serum potassium
Question 4
Your patient has just received a diagnosis of migraine headaches. After reviewing the patient's medical
history, you note that the patient uses a beta 2 agonist, albuterol metered dose inhaler intermittently
for asthma. Why would propranolol, a beta blocker, be an inappropriate drug for migraine prophylaxis in
this patient?
A. It may induce cerebral hypotension and hypoperfusing, thus increasing the intensity of her headache
B. It may induce bronchoconstriction or spasm which may result in an asthma attack
C. It is not inappropriate; she may use it without problems
D. It my increase her blood pressure which may result in increased headaches
It may induce bronchoconstriction or spasm which may result in an asthma attack
Question 5
Angiotensin converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitors treat hypertension because they: select all that apply
A. Reduce sodium and water retention
B. Decrease cardiac oxygen demand
C. Decrease vasoconstriction
D. Increase vasodilation
Reduce sodium and water retention, decrease vasoconstriction, and increase vasodilation
Question 6
Because primary hypertension has no identifiable cause, treatment is based on interfering with the
physiological mechanisms that regulate blood pressure. Thiazide diuretics treat hypertension because
they:
A. Decrease the production of aldosterone
B. Deplete body sodium and reduce fluid volume
,2025
C. Increase renin secretion
D. Decrease blood viscosity
Deplete body sodium and reduce fluid volume
Question 7
Adherence to beta blocker therapy may be affected by the medications?
A. Short half-lives requiring twice daily dosing
B. Tendency to elevate lipid levels
C. Tendency to cause hunger
D. Effects on the male genitalia, which may produce impotence
Effects on the male genitalia which may produce impotence
Question 8
Despite good blood pressure, an NP might change a patient's drug from an ACE inhibitor to an ARB
because the ARB?
A. Is stronger than the ACE inhibitor
B. Has no effect on the renal system
C. Reduces sodium and water retention
D. Does not produce a dry hacky cough
Does not produce a dry hacky cough
Question 9
It is known that prescribing an ACEI to patients with diabetes mellitus results in which of the following
benefits?
A. Patients with early rental dysfunction ill see it reverse when on ACE medications
, 2025
B. Patients without renal issues are the only ones who benefit from ACE protection
C. Patients who start these medications never progress to renal nephropathy
D. Patients who have a reduced rate of renal progression but still need to be discontinued when
advanced renal issues are present
Patients who have a reduced rate of renal progression but still need to be discontinued when
advanced renal issues are present
Question 10
A male patients has been diagnosed with hyperlipidemia. Based on his lipid profile, atorvastatin is
prescribed. Rhabdomylosis is a rare but serious adverse response to this drug. He should be told to?
A. Become a vegetarian because this disorder is associated with eating red meat
B. Stop taking the drug if abdominal cramps and diarrhea develop
C. Expect "hot flash" sensations during the first 2 weeks of therapy
D. Report muscle weakness or tenderness and dark urine to his provider immediately
Report muscle weakness or tenderness and dark urine to his provider immediately
Question 11
Scopolamine can be used to prevent the nausea and vomiting associated with motion sickness. The
patient is taught to?
A. Change the transdermal disk daily for maximal effect
B. Swallow a tablet 15 minutes before traveling where motion sickness is possible
C. Apply the transdermal disk at least 4 hours before the antiemetic effect is desired
D. Place the tablet under the tongue and allow it to dissolve
Apply the transdermal disk at least 4 hours before the antiemetic effect is desired
Question 12
Patients who have angina, regardless of class, who are also diabetic should be on?
A. Beta blockers
B. Calcium channel blockers
C. ACE inhibitors
