1. A client taking haloperidol develops a high fever and
muscle
rigidity. What should the nurse suspect?
A. Serotonin syndrome
B. Neuroleptic malignant syndrome (NMS)
C. Tardive dyskinesia
D. Extrapyramidal symptoms (EPS)
Answer: B
Rationale: NMS is a rare but fatal reaction to antipsychotics.
Requires immediate intervention.
2. A client with chronic constipation uses magnesium
citrate
daily. What risk should the nurse discuss?
A. Hypertension
B. Hypernatremia
C. Electrolyte imbalance
D. Dehydration
Answer: C
Rationale: Chronic laxative use, especially osmotic types
like
magnesium citrate, causes fluid and electrolyte imbalances.
3. A nurse is teaching a client about hydroxychloroquine
for
lupus. What adverse effect should be reported immediately?
A. Dizziness
B. Blurred vision
C. Dry mouth
D. Rash
Answer: B
Rationale: Retinal damage is a serious side effect. Clients
need
regular eye exams.
4. A nurse is reviewing a client’s chart who is prescribed
gentamicin. Which finding should concern the nurse most?
A. Tinnitus
B. WBC 10,000
C. Urine output 50 mL/hr
D. Temperature 100.2°F
Answer: A
Rationale: Tinnitus is a sign of ototoxicity, a serious adverse
effect
of gentamicin.
5. A client taking isoniazid (INH) for tuberculosis develops
numbness and tingling in their hands and feet. What should
, the
nurse anticipate?
A. The need for increased calcium
B. Administration of pyridoxine (vitamin B6)
C. Discontinuation of therapy
D. Addition of prednisone
Answer: B
Rationale: Isoniazid can cause peripheral neuropathy, often
prevented or treated with vitamin B6.
6. A client is started on lorazepam for anxiety. Which
teaching
point is essential?
A. “Avoid grapefruit juice.”
B. “Take with NSAIDs.”
C. “Do not stop abruptly.”
D. “It may take weeks to work.”
Answer: C
Rationale: Benzodiazepines must be tapered to prevent
withdrawal symptoms and seizures.
7. A client taking furosemide reports muscle cramps.
Which lab
value correlates with this symptom?
A. Sodium 142
B. Potassium 2.9
C. Chloride 101
D. Magnesium 2.0
Answer: B
Rationale: Furosemide can cause hypokalemia, which leads
to
muscle cramps. Normal potassium: 3.5–5.0.
8. A client on sildenafil experiences chest pain during
intercourse. What is the nurse’s next action?
A. Administer nitroglycerin
B. Encourage rest and fluids
C. Call emergency services
D. Administer aspirin
Answer: C
Rationale: Sildenafil + nitrates can cause life-threatening
hypotension. Do not give nitro—call 911.
9. A client is taking diphenhydramine. Which side effect is
most
likely?
A. Hypertension
B. Drowsiness
C. Diarrhea
D. Insomnia
muscle
rigidity. What should the nurse suspect?
A. Serotonin syndrome
B. Neuroleptic malignant syndrome (NMS)
C. Tardive dyskinesia
D. Extrapyramidal symptoms (EPS)
Answer: B
Rationale: NMS is a rare but fatal reaction to antipsychotics.
Requires immediate intervention.
2. A client with chronic constipation uses magnesium
citrate
daily. What risk should the nurse discuss?
A. Hypertension
B. Hypernatremia
C. Electrolyte imbalance
D. Dehydration
Answer: C
Rationale: Chronic laxative use, especially osmotic types
like
magnesium citrate, causes fluid and electrolyte imbalances.
3. A nurse is teaching a client about hydroxychloroquine
for
lupus. What adverse effect should be reported immediately?
A. Dizziness
B. Blurred vision
C. Dry mouth
D. Rash
Answer: B
Rationale: Retinal damage is a serious side effect. Clients
need
regular eye exams.
4. A nurse is reviewing a client’s chart who is prescribed
gentamicin. Which finding should concern the nurse most?
A. Tinnitus
B. WBC 10,000
C. Urine output 50 mL/hr
D. Temperature 100.2°F
Answer: A
Rationale: Tinnitus is a sign of ototoxicity, a serious adverse
effect
of gentamicin.
5. A client taking isoniazid (INH) for tuberculosis develops
numbness and tingling in their hands and feet. What should
, the
nurse anticipate?
A. The need for increased calcium
B. Administration of pyridoxine (vitamin B6)
C. Discontinuation of therapy
D. Addition of prednisone
Answer: B
Rationale: Isoniazid can cause peripheral neuropathy, often
prevented or treated with vitamin B6.
6. A client is started on lorazepam for anxiety. Which
teaching
point is essential?
A. “Avoid grapefruit juice.”
B. “Take with NSAIDs.”
C. “Do not stop abruptly.”
D. “It may take weeks to work.”
Answer: C
Rationale: Benzodiazepines must be tapered to prevent
withdrawal symptoms and seizures.
7. A client taking furosemide reports muscle cramps.
Which lab
value correlates with this symptom?
A. Sodium 142
B. Potassium 2.9
C. Chloride 101
D. Magnesium 2.0
Answer: B
Rationale: Furosemide can cause hypokalemia, which leads
to
muscle cramps. Normal potassium: 3.5–5.0.
8. A client on sildenafil experiences chest pain during
intercourse. What is the nurse’s next action?
A. Administer nitroglycerin
B. Encourage rest and fluids
C. Call emergency services
D. Administer aspirin
Answer: C
Rationale: Sildenafil + nitrates can cause life-threatening
hypotension. Do not give nitro—call 911.
9. A client is taking diphenhydramine. Which side effect is
most
likely?
A. Hypertension
B. Drowsiness
C. Diarrhea
D. Insomnia
