1. A client taking carbidopa/levodopa reports facial
twitching
and eye spasms. What should the nurse do?
A. Reassure the client this is expected
B. Hold the dose and notify the provider
C. Administer diphenhydramine
D. Document and continue monitoring
Answer: B
Rationale: Facial twitching and spasms are signs of toxicity.
Notify
the provider to adjust dosage.
2. A client with herpes simplex is prescribed acyclovir.
What is the
most important teaching?
A. "Take on an empty stomach."
B. "Drink plenty of fluids."
C. "Discontinue when symptoms improve."
D. "Expect yellowing of the eyes."
Answer: B
Rationale: Acyclovir can cause nephrotoxicity. Hydration is
essential to reduce the risk.
3. A client on sildenafil experiences chest pain during
intercourse. What is the nurse’s next action?
A. Administer nitroglycerin
B. Encourage rest and fluids
C. Call emergency services
D. Administer aspirin
Answer: C
Rationale: Sildenafil + nitrates can cause life-threatening
hypotension. Do not give nitro—call 911.
4. What lab value should be monitored in a client receiving
propylthiouracil (PTU)?
A. Glucose
B. TSH and T3/T4
C. Calcium
D. Sodium
Answer: B
Rationale: PTU suppresses thyroid hormone. Monitor TSH,
T3, and
T4 to assess effectiveness.
5. A client on lithium therapy has a sodium level of 128
mEq/L.
What is the nurse's best action?
A. Encourage low-sodium diet
, B. Administer next dose
C. Hold the dose and notify the provider
D. Increase fluid restriction
Answer: C
Rationale: Hyponatremia can increase lithium toxicity risk.
Hold
the dose and notify the provider.
6. A client is receiving morphine IV post-op. Which finding
is the
priority?
A. Nausea
B. Respiratory rate of 8/min
C. Itching
D. Sedation score of 2
Answer: B
Rationale: Respiratory depression (<12/min) is the most life
threatening side effect of opioids.
7. A client is started on lorazepam for anxiety. Which
teaching
point is essential?
A. “Avoid grapefruit juice.”
B. “Take with NSAIDs.”
C. “Do not stop abruptly.”
D. “It may take weeks to work.”
Answer: C
Rationale: Benzodiazepines must be tapered to prevent
withdrawal symptoms and seizures.
8. A client receiving amphotericin B develops chills and
fever.
What should the nurse do?
A. Stop the infusion
B. Document findings
C. Pre-medicate with acetaminophen
D. Increase infusion rate
Answer: C
Rationale: Infusion reactions are common. Premedication
with
acetaminophen or diphenhydramine is standard.
9. A nurse is preparing to administer metoprolol. Which
assessment is priority?
A. Respiratory rate
B. Heart rate
C. Oxygen saturation
D. Blood glucose
Answer: B
Rationale: Metoprolol can cause bradycardia. Always check
twitching
and eye spasms. What should the nurse do?
A. Reassure the client this is expected
B. Hold the dose and notify the provider
C. Administer diphenhydramine
D. Document and continue monitoring
Answer: B
Rationale: Facial twitching and spasms are signs of toxicity.
Notify
the provider to adjust dosage.
2. A client with herpes simplex is prescribed acyclovir.
What is the
most important teaching?
A. "Take on an empty stomach."
B. "Drink plenty of fluids."
C. "Discontinue when symptoms improve."
D. "Expect yellowing of the eyes."
Answer: B
Rationale: Acyclovir can cause nephrotoxicity. Hydration is
essential to reduce the risk.
3. A client on sildenafil experiences chest pain during
intercourse. What is the nurse’s next action?
A. Administer nitroglycerin
B. Encourage rest and fluids
C. Call emergency services
D. Administer aspirin
Answer: C
Rationale: Sildenafil + nitrates can cause life-threatening
hypotension. Do not give nitro—call 911.
4. What lab value should be monitored in a client receiving
propylthiouracil (PTU)?
A. Glucose
B. TSH and T3/T4
C. Calcium
D. Sodium
Answer: B
Rationale: PTU suppresses thyroid hormone. Monitor TSH,
T3, and
T4 to assess effectiveness.
5. A client on lithium therapy has a sodium level of 128
mEq/L.
What is the nurse's best action?
A. Encourage low-sodium diet
, B. Administer next dose
C. Hold the dose and notify the provider
D. Increase fluid restriction
Answer: C
Rationale: Hyponatremia can increase lithium toxicity risk.
Hold
the dose and notify the provider.
6. A client is receiving morphine IV post-op. Which finding
is the
priority?
A. Nausea
B. Respiratory rate of 8/min
C. Itching
D. Sedation score of 2
Answer: B
Rationale: Respiratory depression (<12/min) is the most life
threatening side effect of opioids.
7. A client is started on lorazepam for anxiety. Which
teaching
point is essential?
A. “Avoid grapefruit juice.”
B. “Take with NSAIDs.”
C. “Do not stop abruptly.”
D. “It may take weeks to work.”
Answer: C
Rationale: Benzodiazepines must be tapered to prevent
withdrawal symptoms and seizures.
8. A client receiving amphotericin B develops chills and
fever.
What should the nurse do?
A. Stop the infusion
B. Document findings
C. Pre-medicate with acetaminophen
D. Increase infusion rate
Answer: C
Rationale: Infusion reactions are common. Premedication
with
acetaminophen or diphenhydramine is standard.
9. A nurse is preparing to administer metoprolol. Which
assessment is priority?
A. Respiratory rate
B. Heart rate
C. Oxygen saturation
D. Blood glucose
Answer: B
Rationale: Metoprolol can cause bradycardia. Always check
