1. A client is taking diphenhydramine. Which side effect is
most
likely?
A. Hypertension
B. Drowsiness
C. Diarrhea
D. Insomnia
Answer: B
Rationale: First-generation antihistamines like
diphenhydramine
cause sedation and drowsiness.
2. A client on sildenafil experiences chest pain during
intercourse. What is the nurse’s next action?
A. Administer nitroglycerin
B. Encourage rest and fluids
C. Call emergency services
D. Administer aspirin
Answer: C
Rationale: Sildenafil + nitrates can cause life-threatening
hypotension. Do not give nitro—call 911.
3. A client taking omeprazole asks why it is prescribed.
Which
response is correct?
A. "It coats the lining of the stomach."
B. "It neutralizes gastric acid."
C. "It blocks acid production."
D. "It stimulates protective mucus production."
Answer: C
Rationale: Omeprazole is a proton pump inhibitor (PPI) that
blocks gastric acid secretion.
4. A nurse teaches a client taking cyclobenzaprine. Which
statement indicates understanding?
A. “I will take this long-term.”
B. “I can drink alcohol in moderation.”
C. “I should avoid driving until I know how it affects me.”
D. “It will help my heart condition.”
Answer: C
Rationale: Cyclobenzaprine causes drowsiness. Clients
should
avoid driving or alcohol initially.
5. A client taking furosemide reports muscle cramps.
Which lab
value correlates with this symptom?
A. Sodium 142
, B. Potassium 2.9
C. Chloride 101
D. Magnesium 2.0
Answer: B
Rationale: Furosemide can cause hypokalemia, which leads
to
muscle cramps. Normal potassium: 3.5–5.0.
6. A nurse monitors a client taking lamotrigine. What
adverse
effect should prompt discontinuation?
A. Rash
B. Constipation
C. Nausea
D. Drowsiness
Answer: A
Rationale: Lamotrigine can cause a life-threatening rash
(e.g.,
Stevens-Johnson syndrome). Report immediately.
7. A child prescribed methylphenidate for ADHD should be
monitored for which effect?
A. Drowsiness
B. Increased appetite
C. Weight loss and insomnia
D. Bradycardia
Answer: C
Rationale: Stimulants like methylphenidate commonly cause
decreased appetite, insomnia, and weight loss.
8. A client is started on lorazepam for anxiety. Which
teaching
point is essential?
A. “Avoid grapefruit juice.”
B. “Take with NSAIDs.”
C. “Do not stop abruptly.”
D. “It may take weeks to work.”
Answer: C
Rationale: Benzodiazepines must be tapered to prevent
withdrawal symptoms and seizures.
9. A client receiving methotrexate for cancer reports
mouth
sores. What is the nurse's best response?
A. “This is a normal side effect.”
B. “Increase intake of spicy food.”
C. “Use a soft toothbrush and rinse with saline.”
D. “Chew gum frequently.”
Answer: C
Rationale: Mouth sores (stomatitis) are common. Gentle oral
most
likely?
A. Hypertension
B. Drowsiness
C. Diarrhea
D. Insomnia
Answer: B
Rationale: First-generation antihistamines like
diphenhydramine
cause sedation and drowsiness.
2. A client on sildenafil experiences chest pain during
intercourse. What is the nurse’s next action?
A. Administer nitroglycerin
B. Encourage rest and fluids
C. Call emergency services
D. Administer aspirin
Answer: C
Rationale: Sildenafil + nitrates can cause life-threatening
hypotension. Do not give nitro—call 911.
3. A client taking omeprazole asks why it is prescribed.
Which
response is correct?
A. "It coats the lining of the stomach."
B. "It neutralizes gastric acid."
C. "It blocks acid production."
D. "It stimulates protective mucus production."
Answer: C
Rationale: Omeprazole is a proton pump inhibitor (PPI) that
blocks gastric acid secretion.
4. A nurse teaches a client taking cyclobenzaprine. Which
statement indicates understanding?
A. “I will take this long-term.”
B. “I can drink alcohol in moderation.”
C. “I should avoid driving until I know how it affects me.”
D. “It will help my heart condition.”
Answer: C
Rationale: Cyclobenzaprine causes drowsiness. Clients
should
avoid driving or alcohol initially.
5. A client taking furosemide reports muscle cramps.
Which lab
value correlates with this symptom?
A. Sodium 142
, B. Potassium 2.9
C. Chloride 101
D. Magnesium 2.0
Answer: B
Rationale: Furosemide can cause hypokalemia, which leads
to
muscle cramps. Normal potassium: 3.5–5.0.
6. A nurse monitors a client taking lamotrigine. What
adverse
effect should prompt discontinuation?
A. Rash
B. Constipation
C. Nausea
D. Drowsiness
Answer: A
Rationale: Lamotrigine can cause a life-threatening rash
(e.g.,
Stevens-Johnson syndrome). Report immediately.
7. A child prescribed methylphenidate for ADHD should be
monitored for which effect?
A. Drowsiness
B. Increased appetite
C. Weight loss and insomnia
D. Bradycardia
Answer: C
Rationale: Stimulants like methylphenidate commonly cause
decreased appetite, insomnia, and weight loss.
8. A client is started on lorazepam for anxiety. Which
teaching
point is essential?
A. “Avoid grapefruit juice.”
B. “Take with NSAIDs.”
C. “Do not stop abruptly.”
D. “It may take weeks to work.”
Answer: C
Rationale: Benzodiazepines must be tapered to prevent
withdrawal symptoms and seizures.
9. A client receiving methotrexate for cancer reports
mouth
sores. What is the nurse's best response?
A. “This is a normal side effect.”
B. “Increase intake of spicy food.”
C. “Use a soft toothbrush and rinse with saline.”
D. “Chew gum frequently.”
Answer: C
Rationale: Mouth sores (stomatitis) are common. Gentle oral
