1. A post-op client is given ondansetron. Which is an
expected
outcome?
A. Decreased heart rate
B. Absence of nausea
C. Increased bowel sounds
D. Sedation
Answer: B
Rationale: Ondansetron is a serotonin antagonist used to
prevent
or treat nausea and vomiting.
2. A client asks about insulin glargine (Lantus). What is the
correct response?
A. “It works immediately.”
B. “It peaks in 4 hours.”
C. “It has no peak and lasts 24 hours.”
D. “It must be mixed with regular insulin.”
Answer: C
Rationale: Glargine is a long-acting insulin with no
pronounced
peak, providing steady glucose control.
3. A client is prescribed exenatide. What is a common side
effect?
A. Hyperglycemia
B. Constipation
C. Nausea
D. Tachycardia
Answer: C
Rationale: Exenatide can cause nausea, especially when
initiating
therapy. It’s an injectable incretin mimetic.
4. A client taking omeprazole asks why it is prescribed.
Which
response is correct?
A. "It coats the lining of the stomach."
B. "It neutralizes gastric acid."
C. "It blocks acid production."
D. "It stimulates protective mucus production."
Answer: C
Rationale: Omeprazole is a proton pump inhibitor (PPI) that
blocks gastric acid secretion.
5. A client with a penicillin allergy is prescribed
cephalexin. What
is the nurse’s priority?
, A. Administer as ordered
B. Ask about previous reaction type
C. Hold the dose for 30 minutes
D. Give with food
Answer: B
Rationale: Cross-sensitivity may occur. Ask if the client had
A. true
anaphylactic reaction before administering.
6. A nurse is reviewing a client’s chart who is prescribed
gentamicin. Which finding should concern the nurse most?
A. Tinnitus
B. WBC 10,000
C. Urine output 50 mL/hr
D. Temperature 100.2°F
Answer: A
Rationale: Tinnitus is a sign of ototoxicity, a serious adverse
effect
of gentamicin.
7. A nurse is administering digoxin to a client. Which finding
requires immediate action?
A. HR 62 bpm
B. Blurred vision with yellow halos
C. BP 140/88 mmHg
D. Urine output 400 mL in 8 hours
Answer: B
Rationale: Visual disturbances and halos are signs of
digoxin
toxicity, especially when paired with bradycardia.
8. A client taking furosemide reports muscle cramps.
Which lab
value correlates with this symptom?
A. Sodium 142
B. Potassium 2.9
C. Chloride 101
D. Magnesium 2.0
Answer: B
Rationale: Furosemide can cause hypokalemia, which leads
to
muscle cramps. Normal potassium: 3.5–5.0.
9. Which statement indicates proper understanding of
enoxaparin (Lovenox) administration?
A. “I will inject it into my thigh muscle.”
B. “I will rub the site after injection.”
C. “I will inject it into my belly fat.”
D. “I must monitor my INR daily.”
Answer: C
expected
outcome?
A. Decreased heart rate
B. Absence of nausea
C. Increased bowel sounds
D. Sedation
Answer: B
Rationale: Ondansetron is a serotonin antagonist used to
prevent
or treat nausea and vomiting.
2. A client asks about insulin glargine (Lantus). What is the
correct response?
A. “It works immediately.”
B. “It peaks in 4 hours.”
C. “It has no peak and lasts 24 hours.”
D. “It must be mixed with regular insulin.”
Answer: C
Rationale: Glargine is a long-acting insulin with no
pronounced
peak, providing steady glucose control.
3. A client is prescribed exenatide. What is a common side
effect?
A. Hyperglycemia
B. Constipation
C. Nausea
D. Tachycardia
Answer: C
Rationale: Exenatide can cause nausea, especially when
initiating
therapy. It’s an injectable incretin mimetic.
4. A client taking omeprazole asks why it is prescribed.
Which
response is correct?
A. "It coats the lining of the stomach."
B. "It neutralizes gastric acid."
C. "It blocks acid production."
D. "It stimulates protective mucus production."
Answer: C
Rationale: Omeprazole is a proton pump inhibitor (PPI) that
blocks gastric acid secretion.
5. A client with a penicillin allergy is prescribed
cephalexin. What
is the nurse’s priority?
, A. Administer as ordered
B. Ask about previous reaction type
C. Hold the dose for 30 minutes
D. Give with food
Answer: B
Rationale: Cross-sensitivity may occur. Ask if the client had
A. true
anaphylactic reaction before administering.
6. A nurse is reviewing a client’s chart who is prescribed
gentamicin. Which finding should concern the nurse most?
A. Tinnitus
B. WBC 10,000
C. Urine output 50 mL/hr
D. Temperature 100.2°F
Answer: A
Rationale: Tinnitus is a sign of ototoxicity, a serious adverse
effect
of gentamicin.
7. A nurse is administering digoxin to a client. Which finding
requires immediate action?
A. HR 62 bpm
B. Blurred vision with yellow halos
C. BP 140/88 mmHg
D. Urine output 400 mL in 8 hours
Answer: B
Rationale: Visual disturbances and halos are signs of
digoxin
toxicity, especially when paired with bradycardia.
8. A client taking furosemide reports muscle cramps.
Which lab
value correlates with this symptom?
A. Sodium 142
B. Potassium 2.9
C. Chloride 101
D. Magnesium 2.0
Answer: B
Rationale: Furosemide can cause hypokalemia, which leads
to
muscle cramps. Normal potassium: 3.5–5.0.
9. Which statement indicates proper understanding of
enoxaparin (Lovenox) administration?
A. “I will inject it into my thigh muscle.”
B. “I will rub the site after injection.”
C. “I will inject it into my belly fat.”
D. “I must monitor my INR daily.”
Answer: C
