AAAE ACE Operations Module 1 Latest Exams Pack
2025 | Verified Quiz Questions and A+ Certified
How many airports are in the NPIAS and what three types are included? - 3,380
airports; 1) commercial service, 2) reliever, 3) select GA
What are the three defining characteristics of commercial service airports? - 1) open to
the public 2) receive scheduled passenger service 3) 2,500 or more enplaned passenger per
year
What type of airport has commercial service and over 10,000 annual enplanements? -
Primary airport
Primary airports are split into 4 categories, what are they and how are they defined? -
Large Hub (>1% of all US annual enplanements); Medium Hub (0.25% to 1%); Small Hub
(0.05-0.25%); Non-Hub (10,000 to 0.05%)
How many enplanements characterize a non-primary commercial service airport? -
between 2,500 and 10,000 enplanements per year
What characterizes a reliever airport? - 1) open to the public; 2) 100 or more based
aircraft or 25,000 annual operations
General aviation airports can be included in the NPIAS under what circumstances? - If
they have at least 10 locally based aircraft and are at least 20 miles from a NPIAS airport
What plan provides guidelines for an airport's capital development over a 20-year timeframe?
- Master Plan
What is the set of drawings that shows the airport's long-term development, updated in
accordance with grant assurance number 29? - Airport Layout Plans
Runway design standards are based on what three primary factors? - 1) airplane design
group (wingspan); 2) aircraft approach category (approach speed); 3) approach visibility
minimums
Taxiway and taxilane design standards are based on what primary factor? - airplane
design group (wingspan)
, How is airplane design group determined and categorized? - Based on the aircraft's
wingspan and tail height whichever is most restrictive; 6 categories, I thru VI, where I is the
smallest/shortest and VI is the largest/tallest
How is aircraft approach category determined and categorized? - Based on aircraft
approach speed; 5 categories, A thru E, where A is the slowest and E is the fastest
What are the 6 categories of airplane design group? - I (tail height <20', wingspan <49');
II (tail height 20 - <30', wingspan 49 - <79'); III (tail height 30 - <45'), wingspan 79-<118'); IV
(tail height 45 - <60', wingspan 118 - <171'); V (tail height 60 - <66', wingspan 171 - <214'); VI
(tail height 66 - <80', wingspan 214 - <262')
What are the 5 aircraft approach categories and the criteria for each category? - A (<91
knots); B (91 - <121 knots); C (121 - <141 knots); D (141 - <166 knots); E (>166 knots)
When is a cross-runway recommended? - When a runway orientation provides less
than 95% wind coverage for any aircraft forecasted to use the airport
What are some of the factors affecting the location and orientation of runways? - wind,
available airspace, environmental factors, obstructions, topography, ATCT visibility, wildlife
hazards
To ensure water run-off, what is the normal grade of a runway and runway shoulder? -
1 - 1.5% cross-section grade for the runway and 1.5 - 5% for the runway shoulder
What is the purpose of a runway shoulder? - resist runway erosion, passage of vehicles
and surface for aircraft that veer off the runway
How is runway width determined and what is the range of standard widths? - ARC and
approach visibility minimums; 60 - 200'
What is the range of widths for a runway safety area (RSA)? - 120 - 150'
What is the term for an area formed by imaginary lines connecting the visibility points of two
different runways? - Runway Visibility Zones (RVZ)
What is the term for the beginning or end of the full-strength runway pavement available for
takeoff and landing? - Runway threshold
When a runway threshold is not located at the start of the full-strength pavement what is it
called and why would this occur? - Displaced threshold; it is used to identify the first
point for landing aircraft to avoid an airspace obstruction, to mitigate environmental
considerations, or to lengthen an RSA or OFA
2025 | Verified Quiz Questions and A+ Certified
How many airports are in the NPIAS and what three types are included? - 3,380
airports; 1) commercial service, 2) reliever, 3) select GA
What are the three defining characteristics of commercial service airports? - 1) open to
the public 2) receive scheduled passenger service 3) 2,500 or more enplaned passenger per
year
What type of airport has commercial service and over 10,000 annual enplanements? -
Primary airport
Primary airports are split into 4 categories, what are they and how are they defined? -
Large Hub (>1% of all US annual enplanements); Medium Hub (0.25% to 1%); Small Hub
(0.05-0.25%); Non-Hub (10,000 to 0.05%)
How many enplanements characterize a non-primary commercial service airport? -
between 2,500 and 10,000 enplanements per year
What characterizes a reliever airport? - 1) open to the public; 2) 100 or more based
aircraft or 25,000 annual operations
General aviation airports can be included in the NPIAS under what circumstances? - If
they have at least 10 locally based aircraft and are at least 20 miles from a NPIAS airport
What plan provides guidelines for an airport's capital development over a 20-year timeframe?
- Master Plan
What is the set of drawings that shows the airport's long-term development, updated in
accordance with grant assurance number 29? - Airport Layout Plans
Runway design standards are based on what three primary factors? - 1) airplane design
group (wingspan); 2) aircraft approach category (approach speed); 3) approach visibility
minimums
Taxiway and taxilane design standards are based on what primary factor? - airplane
design group (wingspan)
, How is airplane design group determined and categorized? - Based on the aircraft's
wingspan and tail height whichever is most restrictive; 6 categories, I thru VI, where I is the
smallest/shortest and VI is the largest/tallest
How is aircraft approach category determined and categorized? - Based on aircraft
approach speed; 5 categories, A thru E, where A is the slowest and E is the fastest
What are the 6 categories of airplane design group? - I (tail height <20', wingspan <49');
II (tail height 20 - <30', wingspan 49 - <79'); III (tail height 30 - <45'), wingspan 79-<118'); IV
(tail height 45 - <60', wingspan 118 - <171'); V (tail height 60 - <66', wingspan 171 - <214'); VI
(tail height 66 - <80', wingspan 214 - <262')
What are the 5 aircraft approach categories and the criteria for each category? - A (<91
knots); B (91 - <121 knots); C (121 - <141 knots); D (141 - <166 knots); E (>166 knots)
When is a cross-runway recommended? - When a runway orientation provides less
than 95% wind coverage for any aircraft forecasted to use the airport
What are some of the factors affecting the location and orientation of runways? - wind,
available airspace, environmental factors, obstructions, topography, ATCT visibility, wildlife
hazards
To ensure water run-off, what is the normal grade of a runway and runway shoulder? -
1 - 1.5% cross-section grade for the runway and 1.5 - 5% for the runway shoulder
What is the purpose of a runway shoulder? - resist runway erosion, passage of vehicles
and surface for aircraft that veer off the runway
How is runway width determined and what is the range of standard widths? - ARC and
approach visibility minimums; 60 - 200'
What is the range of widths for a runway safety area (RSA)? - 120 - 150'
What is the term for an area formed by imaginary lines connecting the visibility points of two
different runways? - Runway Visibility Zones (RVZ)
What is the term for the beginning or end of the full-strength runway pavement available for
takeoff and landing? - Runway threshold
When a runway threshold is not located at the start of the full-strength pavement what is it
called and why would this occur? - Displaced threshold; it is used to identify the first
point for landing aircraft to avoid an airspace obstruction, to mitigate environmental
considerations, or to lengthen an RSA or OFA
