1. A client taking haloperidol develops a high fever and
muscle
rigidity. What should the nurse suspect?
A. Serotonin syndrome
B. Neuroleptic malignant syndrome (NMS)
C. Tardive dyskinesia
D. Extrapyramidal symptoms (EPS)
Answer: B
Rationale: NMS is a rare but fatal reaction to antipsychotics.
Requires immediate intervention.
2. A client takes aluminum hydroxide for GERD. What
adverse
effect should the nurse monitor?
A. Diarrhea
B. Constipation
C. Hypokalemia
D. Rash
Answer: B
Rationale: Aluminum-based antacids commonly cause
constipation.
3. A nurse is educating a client on atorvastatin. What side
effect
should the client report immediately?
A. Headache
B. Muscle pain
C. Drowsiness
D. Constipation
Answer: B
Rationale: Myopathy can occur with statins and may
progress to
rhabdomyolysis. Report muscle pain immediately.
4. A client with chronic constipation uses magnesium
citrate
daily. What risk should the nurse discuss?
A. Hypertension
B. Hypernatremia
C. Electrolyte imbalance
D. Dehydration
Answer: C
Rationale: Chronic laxative use, especially osmotic types
like
magnesium citrate, causes fluid and electrolyte imbalances.
5. A nurse is caring for a client prescribed lisinopril. Which
lab
, result should the nurse report to the provider?
A. Sodium 138 mEq/L
B. Potassium 5.8 mEq/L
C. Hemoglobin 14 g/dL
D. BUN 18 mg/dL
Answer: B
Rationale: Lisinopril, an ACE inhibitor, can cause
hyperkalemia. A
potassium level of 5.8 is elevated and should be reported.
6. A nurse teaches a client taking cyclobenzaprine. Which
statement indicates understanding?
A. “I will take this long-term.”
B. “I can drink alcohol in moderation.”
C. “I should avoid driving until I know how it affects me.”
D. “It will help my heart condition.”
Answer: C
Rationale: Cyclobenzaprine causes drowsiness. Clients
should
avoid driving or alcohol initially.
7. What lab value should be monitored in a client receiving
propylthiouracil (PTU)?
A. Glucose
B. TSH and T3/T4
C. Calcium
D. Sodium
Answer: B
Rationale: PTU suppresses thyroid hormone. Monitor TSH,
T3, and
T4 to assess effectiveness.
8. A client is receiving morphine IV post-op. Which finding
is the
priority?
A. Nausea
B. Respiratory rate of 8/min
C. Itching
D. Sedation score of 2
Answer: B
Rationale: Respiratory depression (<12/min) is the most life
threatening side effect of opioids.
9. A client with hypothyroidism takes levothyroxine. Which
statement indicates effective therapy?
A. “I feel cold all the time.”
B. “My heart rate is slower than usual.”
C. “I have more energy now.”
D. “I’m gaining weight quickly.”
Answer: C
muscle
rigidity. What should the nurse suspect?
A. Serotonin syndrome
B. Neuroleptic malignant syndrome (NMS)
C. Tardive dyskinesia
D. Extrapyramidal symptoms (EPS)
Answer: B
Rationale: NMS is a rare but fatal reaction to antipsychotics.
Requires immediate intervention.
2. A client takes aluminum hydroxide for GERD. What
adverse
effect should the nurse monitor?
A. Diarrhea
B. Constipation
C. Hypokalemia
D. Rash
Answer: B
Rationale: Aluminum-based antacids commonly cause
constipation.
3. A nurse is educating a client on atorvastatin. What side
effect
should the client report immediately?
A. Headache
B. Muscle pain
C. Drowsiness
D. Constipation
Answer: B
Rationale: Myopathy can occur with statins and may
progress to
rhabdomyolysis. Report muscle pain immediately.
4. A client with chronic constipation uses magnesium
citrate
daily. What risk should the nurse discuss?
A. Hypertension
B. Hypernatremia
C. Electrolyte imbalance
D. Dehydration
Answer: C
Rationale: Chronic laxative use, especially osmotic types
like
magnesium citrate, causes fluid and electrolyte imbalances.
5. A nurse is caring for a client prescribed lisinopril. Which
lab
, result should the nurse report to the provider?
A. Sodium 138 mEq/L
B. Potassium 5.8 mEq/L
C. Hemoglobin 14 g/dL
D. BUN 18 mg/dL
Answer: B
Rationale: Lisinopril, an ACE inhibitor, can cause
hyperkalemia. A
potassium level of 5.8 is elevated and should be reported.
6. A nurse teaches a client taking cyclobenzaprine. Which
statement indicates understanding?
A. “I will take this long-term.”
B. “I can drink alcohol in moderation.”
C. “I should avoid driving until I know how it affects me.”
D. “It will help my heart condition.”
Answer: C
Rationale: Cyclobenzaprine causes drowsiness. Clients
should
avoid driving or alcohol initially.
7. What lab value should be monitored in a client receiving
propylthiouracil (PTU)?
A. Glucose
B. TSH and T3/T4
C. Calcium
D. Sodium
Answer: B
Rationale: PTU suppresses thyroid hormone. Monitor TSH,
T3, and
T4 to assess effectiveness.
8. A client is receiving morphine IV post-op. Which finding
is the
priority?
A. Nausea
B. Respiratory rate of 8/min
C. Itching
D. Sedation score of 2
Answer: B
Rationale: Respiratory depression (<12/min) is the most life
threatening side effect of opioids.
9. A client with hypothyroidism takes levothyroxine. Which
statement indicates effective therapy?
A. “I feel cold all the time.”
B. “My heart rate is slower than usual.”
C. “I have more energy now.”
D. “I’m gaining weight quickly.”
Answer: C
