1. What lab value should be monitored in a client receiving
propylthiouracil (PTU)?
A. Glucose
B. TSH and T3/T4
C. Calcium
D. Sodium
Answer: B
Rationale: PTU suppresses thyroid hormone. Monitor TSH,
T3, and
T4 to assess effectiveness.
2. Which statement indicates proper understanding of
enoxaparin (Lovenox) administration?
A. “I will inject it into my thigh muscle.”
B. “I will rub the site after injection.”
C. “I will inject it into my belly fat.”
D. “I must monitor my INR daily.”
Answer: C
Rationale: Enoxaparin is given subcutaneously, preferably
in the
abdomen, and INR monitoring is not required.
3. A nurse is reviewing a client’s chart who is prescribed
gentamicin. Which finding should concern the nurse most?
A. Tinnitus
B. WBC 10,000
C. Urine output 50 mL/hr
D. Temperature 100.2°F
Answer: A
Rationale: Tinnitus is a sign of ototoxicity, a serious adverse
effect
of gentamicin.
4. A client is using a scopolamine patch for motion sickness.
What side effect should the nurse monitor?
A. Diarrhea
B. Blurred vision and dry mouth
C. Rash
D. Hearing loss
Answer: B
Rationale: Scopolamine has anticholinergic effects like dry
mouth,
blurred vision, and urinary retention.
5. A client is prescribed loratadine for seasonal allergies.
What is
A. key difference from diphenhydramine?
A. Loratadine causes more drowsiness
, B. Loratadine causes GI upset
C. Loratadine is non-sedating
D. Loratadine is only available IV
Answer: C
Rationale: Second-generation antihistamines like loratadine
are
non-sedating.
6. A client is receiving morphine IV post-op. Which finding
is the
priority?
A. Nausea
B. Respiratory rate of 8/min
C. Itching
D. Sedation score of 2
Answer: B
Rationale: Respiratory depression (<12/min) is the most life
threatening side effect of opioids.
7. A client taking furosemide reports muscle cramps.
Which lab
value correlates with this symptom?
A. Sodium 142
B. Potassium 2.9
C. Chloride 101
D. Magnesium 2.0
Answer: B
Rationale: Furosemide can cause hypokalemia, which leads
to
muscle cramps. Normal potassium: 3.5–5.0.
8. A client asks about insulin glargine (Lantus). What is the
correct response?
A. “It works immediately.”
B. “It peaks in 4 hours.”
C. “It has no peak and lasts 24 hours.”
D. “It must be mixed with regular insulin.”
Answer: C
Rationale: Glargine is a long-acting insulin with no
pronounced
peak, providing steady glucose control.
9. A nurse is educating a client on atorvastatin. What side
effect
should the client report immediately?
A. Headache
B. Muscle pain
C. Drowsiness
D. Constipation
Answer: B
propylthiouracil (PTU)?
A. Glucose
B. TSH and T3/T4
C. Calcium
D. Sodium
Answer: B
Rationale: PTU suppresses thyroid hormone. Monitor TSH,
T3, and
T4 to assess effectiveness.
2. Which statement indicates proper understanding of
enoxaparin (Lovenox) administration?
A. “I will inject it into my thigh muscle.”
B. “I will rub the site after injection.”
C. “I will inject it into my belly fat.”
D. “I must monitor my INR daily.”
Answer: C
Rationale: Enoxaparin is given subcutaneously, preferably
in the
abdomen, and INR monitoring is not required.
3. A nurse is reviewing a client’s chart who is prescribed
gentamicin. Which finding should concern the nurse most?
A. Tinnitus
B. WBC 10,000
C. Urine output 50 mL/hr
D. Temperature 100.2°F
Answer: A
Rationale: Tinnitus is a sign of ototoxicity, a serious adverse
effect
of gentamicin.
4. A client is using a scopolamine patch for motion sickness.
What side effect should the nurse monitor?
A. Diarrhea
B. Blurred vision and dry mouth
C. Rash
D. Hearing loss
Answer: B
Rationale: Scopolamine has anticholinergic effects like dry
mouth,
blurred vision, and urinary retention.
5. A client is prescribed loratadine for seasonal allergies.
What is
A. key difference from diphenhydramine?
A. Loratadine causes more drowsiness
, B. Loratadine causes GI upset
C. Loratadine is non-sedating
D. Loratadine is only available IV
Answer: C
Rationale: Second-generation antihistamines like loratadine
are
non-sedating.
6. A client is receiving morphine IV post-op. Which finding
is the
priority?
A. Nausea
B. Respiratory rate of 8/min
C. Itching
D. Sedation score of 2
Answer: B
Rationale: Respiratory depression (<12/min) is the most life
threatening side effect of opioids.
7. A client taking furosemide reports muscle cramps.
Which lab
value correlates with this symptom?
A. Sodium 142
B. Potassium 2.9
C. Chloride 101
D. Magnesium 2.0
Answer: B
Rationale: Furosemide can cause hypokalemia, which leads
to
muscle cramps. Normal potassium: 3.5–5.0.
8. A client asks about insulin glargine (Lantus). What is the
correct response?
A. “It works immediately.”
B. “It peaks in 4 hours.”
C. “It has no peak and lasts 24 hours.”
D. “It must be mixed with regular insulin.”
Answer: C
Rationale: Glargine is a long-acting insulin with no
pronounced
peak, providing steady glucose control.
9. A nurse is educating a client on atorvastatin. What side
effect
should the client report immediately?
A. Headache
B. Muscle pain
C. Drowsiness
D. Constipation
Answer: B
