NSG 3850 / NSG3850 Exam 2 (Latest Update 2025 / 2026) Pathophysiology for Nurses II | Questions and verified Answers | Grade A | 100% Correct – Galen
•
Question:
Which is indicative of a left tension pneumothorax?
a. course crackles throughout the left chest
b. tracheal deviation to the left
c. absent breath sounds on the left
d. respiratory acidosis
Answer:
C
Question:
A pt. with a productive cough and parenchymal infiltrated on x-ray is demonstrating symptomology of
a. bacterial pneumonia
b. viral pneumonia
c. tuberculosis
d. acute respiratory distress syndrome
Answer:
A
Question:
Which ds is caused by inhalation of organic substances?
a. diffuse interstitial lung ds
b. hypersensitivity pneumonitis
c. sarcoidosis
d. acute respiratory distress syndrome
Answer:
B
Question:
Empyema is defined as an
a. exudative bronchitis
b. infection int he pleural space
c. infection localized in the lung
d. infection in the blood
Answer:
B
Question:
A pt with flail chest will demonstrate
a. absence of chest movement with breaths
b. no inspiratory breath sounds
c. fluttering chest movements on expirations
d. outward chest movement on expiration
Answer:
d
Question:
Obstructive sleep apnea would most likely be found in a pt. diagnosed with
a. myasthenia gravis
b. poliomyelitis
c. pickwickian syndrome
d. pneumonia
Answer:
C
Question:
Pneumocystitis is a term hat refers to a
a. fingal pneumonia secondary to HIV
b. viral PNA found in transplant recipients
c. non-infectious inflammation in the lung
d. pneumonia secondary to bladder infection
Answer:
A
Question:
The most definitive diagnostic method for active TB is acquired via
a. sputum culture
b. montoux skin test
c. chest x-ray
d. blood culture
Answer:
A
Question:
A major cause of treatment failure in TB is
a. resistant organism
b. allergy to drugs used
c. noncompliance
d. immunosuppression
Answer:
C
Question:
Legionnaires disease is characterized by
a. presence of systemic illness
b. airborne mechanism of communicability
c. mild symptomatology
d. resolution with or without antimicrobial therapy
Answer:
A
Question:
Bacterial PNA leads to hypoxemia caused by
a. cariogenic pulmonary edema
b. upper airway obstruction
c. accumulation of alveolar exudates
d. interstitial edema
Answer:
C
Question:
A common characteristic of viral pneumonia is
a. high fever
b. alveolar infiltrates ona. CXR
c. increased WBC count
d. dry cough
Answer:
D
Question:
A major risk factor for the development of active pulmonary TB disease is
a. contaminated water
b. immunosuppression
c. being a male
d. overuse of antibiotics
Answer:
B
Question:
A restrictive respiratory disorder is characterized by
a, increased total lung capacity
b. decreased residual volume
c. inspiratory wheezing
d. expiratory wheezing
Answer:
B
Question:
Air that enters the pleural space during inspiration but is unable to exit during expiration creates a condition called
a. tension pneumothorax
b. open pneumothorax
c. pleural effusion
d. empyema
Answer:
A
Question:
Common characteristics of sarcoidosis include (select all that apply)
a. presence of CD4+ T cells
b. a non-productive cough
c. leukocytosis
d. granulomas in multiple body systems
e. fatigue, weight loss, fever
Answer:
A, B, D, E
Question:
Chronic occupational lung disease is characterized by (select all that apply)
a. causation from long-term inhalation or inorganic material
b. a latent period before sx occur
c. hyperactive respiratory macrophages
d. a progressive cough and dyspnea with exercise
e. possible negative chest x-ray when symptom free
Answer:
A, B, D, E
Question:
Restrictive respiratory disorders include (select all that apply)
a. pneumothorax
b. emphysema
c. chronic asthma
d. type B COPD
d. ARDS
Answer:
A, E
Question:
Emphysema results from destruction of alveolar walls and capillaries, which is bc of
a. release of proteolytic enzymes from immune cells
b. air trapping with resultant excessive alveolar pressure
c. excessive a1-antitrypsin
d. autoantibodies against pulmonary basement membrane
Answer:
A
Question:
Chronic bronchitis often leads to for pulmonate bc of
a. ventricular hypoxia
b. increased pulmonary vascular resistance
c. left ventricular strain
d. hypervolemia
Answer:
B
Question:
All obstructive pulmonary disorders are characterized by
a. resistance to airflow
b. hyper-responsiveness
c. decreased residual volumes
d. decreased lung compliance
Answer:
A
Question:
Asthma is categorized as an
a. restrictive pulmonary ds
b. infective pulmonary ds
c. obstructive pulmonary ds
d. type pf acute tracheo-bronchial obstruction
Answer:
C
Question:
Which pulmonary function test result is consistent with a diagnosis of asthma?
a. reduced forced expiratory volume in 1 second (FEV1)
b. decreased functional residual capacity
c. increased FEV1
d. reduced total lung volume
Answer:
A
Question:
Obstructive disorders are associated with
a. low residual volumes
b. low expiratory flow rates
c. increased expiratory reserve volume
d. decreased total lung capacity
Answer:
B
Question:
COPD leads to a barrel chest, bc it causes
a. pulmonary edema
b. muscle atrophy
c. prolonged inspiration
d. air trapping
Answer:
D
Question:
Lack of a-antitrypsin in emphysema causes
a. chronic mucous secretion and airway fibrosis
b. destruction of alveolar tissue
c. pulmonary edema dn increased alveolar compliance
d. bronchoconstriction and airway edema
Answer:
B
Question:
The hyper-secretion of mucus resulting for chronic bronchitis is the result of
a. recurrent infection
b. destruction of alveolar septa
c. reduced inflammation
d. barrel chest
Answer:
A
Question:
Which assessment would support a diagnosis of type A COPD rather than type B COPD?
a. copious sputum, dyspnea, cor pulmonale
b. noisy breath sounds, fatigue, high PaCO2, overweight
c. normal PaCO2, scant sputum, accessory muscle use, barrel chest
d. barrel chest productive cough, cyanosis, very decreased PaO2
Answer:
C
//
Question:
To best percent emphysema, a pt. is instructed to stop smoking since cigarette smoke
a. impairs a-antitrypsin, allowing elastase to predominate
b. paralyzes the cilia, causing mucuciliary clearance
c. predisposes to respiratory infections
d. introduces carcinogens into the lungs
Answer:
A
Question:
When a client diagnosed with COPD type A asks, "Why is my chest so big and round?", the nurse responds that
a. "loss of elastic tissue in your lungs allows your airways to close and trap air, which makes you chest round."
b. "swelling and mucus in your airways causes air to be trapped in your lunges, which makes your chest round."
c. "Coughing caused by your condition has changed the structure of your airways, which makes your chest round."
d. "scar tissue in your lungs makes them stiff and more full of air than usual, which makes your chest round."
Answer:
A
Question:
Airway obstruction in chronic bronchitis is because of
a. thick, mucus, fibrosis, and smooth muscle hypertrophy
b. loss of alveolar elastin
c. pulmonary edema
d. hyperplasia and deformation of bronchial cartilage
A
Answer:
Question:
Individuals who have chronic bronchitis most often have
a. a productive cough
b. normal lung sounds
c. barrel chest
d. substantial weight loss
Answer:
A
Question:
The increased anterior-posterior chest diameter associated with obstructive lung disease is caused by
a. increased pulmonary blood flow
b. increased expiratory flow rates
c. increased residual lung volumes
d. decreased chest wall compliance
Answer:
C
//
Question:
Clinical manifestations of chronic arterial obstruction include
a. edema
b. intermittent claudication
c. decreased pressure proximal to the obstruction
d. distal hyperemia
Answer:
B
Question:
Peripheral edema is a result of
a. arterial insufficiency
b. venous thrombosis
c. hypertension
d. atherosclerosis
Answer:
B
Question:
Risk factors for atherosclerosis include
a. female gender
b. hyperlipidemia
c. high-protein diet
d. low-fiber diet
Answer:
B
Question:
Which is not a manifestation of acute arterial obstruction?
a. pain
b. purpura
c. pallor
d. pulselessness
Answer:
B
Question:
The goal of long-term heparin for the management of a deep vein thrombosis is to
a. relieve edema
b. prevent clot dislodgment
c. dissolve the thrombus
d. prevent further clot formation
Answer:
D
Question:
Which condition enhances sympathetic flow?
a. increased tissue hydrostatic pressure
b. increased interstitial fluid colloid osmotic pressure
c. decreased capillary hydrostatic pressure
d. increased capillary oncotic pressure
Answer:
B
Question:
Venous obstruction leads to edema because it _____ pressure
a. increases capillary oncotic
b. increases arterial blood
c. decreases tissue
d. increases capillary hydrostatic
Answer:
D
//
Question:
Which is not considered to be a risk factor fro thrombus formation?
a. thrombocytopenia
b. vascular trauma
c. stasis of blood flow
d. circulatory shock
Answer:
A
Question:
Which clinical finding is indicative of compartment syndrome?
a. peripheral edema
b. absent peripheral pulses
c. redness and swelling
d. atrophy of distal tissues
Answer:
B
Question:
When a pt is struck in the eye by a baseball, the result is redness and swelling. This increase in blood flow to a localized area is called
a. auto-regulation
b. edema
c. hyperemia
d. hypoxia
Answer:
C
Question:
Hypertension with a specific, identifiable cause is known as _____ hypertension.
a. primary
b. orthostatic
c. secondary
d. malignant
Answer:
C
Question:
Hypertension is closely linked to
a. obstructive sleep apnea
b. urinary tract infection
c. de Quervain syndrome
d. spinal stenosis
Answer:
A
Question:
A pt presents to the emergency department with a diastolic blood pressure of 132mm Hg, retinopathy, and symptoms of an ischemic stroke. This symptomolgy is likely the result of
a. atherosclerosis
b. angina
c. myocardial infarction
d. hypertensive crisis
Answer:
D
Question:
It can be explained to a pt that high blood pressure increases the risk of (select all that apply)
a. stroke
b. renal ds
c. diabetes
d. ischemic heart ds
d. liver ds
Answer:
A, B, D
Question:
Atherosclerosis puts a pt. at risk for (select all that apply):
a. ischemic stroke
b. hemorrhagic stroke
c. retinal injury
d. renal impairment
e. liver ds
Answer:
A, C, D
Question:
Pt.'s presenting w/ symptoms of unstable angina and no ST segment elevation are treated with
a. cardiac catheterization
b. anti-platelet drugs
c. acute repercussion therapy
d. cardiac biomarkers only
Answer:
B
//
Question:
Hypotension, distended neck veins, and muffled heart sounds are classic manifestations of
a. myocardial infarction
b. cardiac tamponade
c. congestive heart failure (CHF)
d. cardiomyopathy
Answer:
B
Question:
Constrictive pericarditis is associated with
a. impaired cardiac filling
b. cardiac hypertrophy
c. increased cardiac preload
d. elevated myocardial oxygen consumption
Answer:
A
Question:
Mitral stenosis is associated with
a. a prominent S4 heart sound
b. pressure gradient across the mitral valve
c. left ventricular hypertrophy
d. a muffled second heart sounds S2
Answer:
B
Question:
Aortic regurgitation is associated with
a. diastolic murmur
b. elevated left ventricular/aortic systolic pressure gradient
c. elevated systemic diastolic blood pressure
d. shortened ventricular ejection phase
Answer:
A
Question:
Angina caused by coronary artery spasm is called ____ angina.
a. stable
b. classic
c. unstable
d. prinzmental variant
Answer:
D
Question:
A pt. w/ a hx of MI continues to c/o intermittent chest pain brought on by exertion and relieved by rest. The likely cause of this pain is
a. stable angina
b. myocardial infarction
c. coronary vasospasm
d. unstable angina
Answer:
A
Question:
A loud pan systolic murmur that radiates to the axilla is most likely a result of
a. aortic regurgitation
b. aortic stenosis
c. mitral regurgitation
d. mitral stenosis
Answer:
C
Question:
A pt. with significant aortic stenosis is likely to experience
a. syncope
b. hypertension
c. increased pulse pressure
d. peripheral edema
Answer:
A
Question:
Acute coronary syndrome in the presence of thrombosis may present as (select all that apply)
a. unstable angina
b. MI
c. sudden cardiac arrest
d. bleeding
e. hypovolemia
Answer:
A, B, C
Question:
Left sided HR is characterized by
a. pulmonary congestion
b. decreased systemic vascular resistance
c. jugular vein distention
d. peripheral edema
Answer:
A
Question:
Cor pulmonale refers to
a. biventricular failure
b. left ventricular hypertrophy secondary to lung disease
c. right ventricular hypertrophy secondary to pulmonary hypertension
d. right ventricular failure secondary to right ventricular infarction
Answer:
C
Content preview
NSG 3850 / NSG3850 Exam 2 (Latest Update
) Pathophysiology for Nurses II |
Questions and verified Answers | Grade A | 100%
Correct – Galen
•
Question:
Which is indicative of a left tension pneumothorax?
a. course crackles throughout the left chest
b. tracheal deviation to the left
c. absent breath sounds on the left
d. respiratory acidosis
Answer:
C
Question:
A pt. with a productive cough and parenchymal infiltrated on x-ray is
demonstrating symptomology of
a. bacterial pneumonia
b. viral pneumonia
c. tuberculosis
d. acute respiratory distress syndrome
Answer:
A
,Question:
Which ds is caused by inhalation of organic substances?
a. diffuse interstitial lung ds
b. hypersensitivity pneumonitis
c. sarcoidosis
d. acute respiratory distress syndrome
Answer:
B
Question:
Empyema is defined as an
a. exudative bronchitis
b. infection int he pleural space
c. infection localized in the lung
d. infection in the blood
Answer:
B
Question:
A pt with flail chest will demonstrate
a. absence of chest movement with breaths
b. no inspiratory breath sounds
, c. fluttering chest movements on expirations
d. outward chest movement on expiration
Answer:
d
Question:
Obstructive sleep apnea would most likely be found in a pt. diagnosed with
a. myasthenia gravis
b. poliomyelitis
c. pickwickian syndrome
d. pneumonia
Answer:
C
Question:
Pneumocystitis is a term hat refers to a
a. fingal pneumonia secondary to HIV
b. viral PNA found in transplant recipients
c. non-infectious inflammation in the lung
d. pneumonia secondary to bladder infection
Answer:
A