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Aanp boards EXIT EXAM 2025 AND PRACTICE EXAM |ACCURATE QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS| VERIFIED FOR GUARANTEED PASS |GRADED A | BRAND NEW

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Question: Patients may have an S3 heart sound present when there is increased atrial pressure that leads to rapid ventricular filling. Which of the following statements is incorrect regarding this heart sound? A. It is common to hear in those with heart failure B. It is often associated with uncontrolled hypertension C. It may be a normal variant if heard in patients ≤ 40 years old D. It may be noted during pregnancy, especially the third trimester Correct Answer: B. It is often associated with uncontrolled hypertension Rationale: An S3 is linked to fluid overload states like heart failure or pregnancy. It is not typically associated with hypertension, which more commonly results in an S4 heart sound. ________________________________________ 2. Streptococcal Pharyngitis Treatment Question: An 11-year-old boy presents with a 2-day sore throat, fever, exudative tonsils, palatine petechiae, and anterior cervical lymphadenopathy. What is the most appropriate treatment? A. Amoxicillin (Amoxil) B. Clindamycin (Cleocin) C. Nystatin (Mycostatin) D. Supportive care Correct Answer: A. Amoxicillin (Amoxil) Rationale: Classic signs of streptococcal pharyngitis warrant antibiotic treatment. Amoxicillin is a first-line therapy. Supportive care alone is insufficient. ________________________________________ 3. Disseminated Gonorrheal Infection Question: A 21-year-old woman presents with pelvic pain, green cervical discharge, dyspareunia, and a painful swollen knee. What is the most likely diagnosis? A. Septic arthritis B. Reiter's syndrome C. Chondromalacia of the patella D. Disseminated gonorrheal infection Correct Answer: D. Disseminated gonorrheal infection Rationale: The combination of PID symptoms and joint pain suggests dissemination of gonorrhea, which can lead to arthritis-like symptoms. ________________________________________ 4. Antipsychotic for Resistant Symptoms Question: A 28-year-old male with persistent psychotic symptoms despite risperidone therapy should be prescribed: A. Clozapine (Versacloz) B. Amitriptyline (Elavil) C. Bupropion (Wellbutrin) D. Lithium carbonate (Eskalith) Correct Answer: A. Clozapine (Versacloz) Rationale: Clozapine is reserved for treatment-resistant schizophrenia and has shown effectiveness in such cases. ________________________________________ 5. Hepatitis C Follow-Up Test Question: A 60-year-old woman has a positive anti-HCV test. Which is the appropriate follow-up test? A. HCV RNA B. HCV antibody C. HCV core antibody D. HCV surface antigen Correct Answer: A. HCV RNA Rationale: The HCV RNA test determines if there is an active infection and is essential after a positive screening test. ________________________________________ 6. Pernicious Anemia Indicators Question: Which of the following is not a hematologic change associated with pernicious anemia? A. Hypersegmented granulocytes B. Mean corpuscular volume of 120 fL C. Red cell distribution width of 12.3% D. Serum cobalamin level of 130 pg/mL Correct Answer: C. Red cell distribution width of 12.3% Rationale: Pernicious anemia typically causes elevated RDW; 12.3% is within the normal range. ________________________________________ 7. First Permanent Teeth Question: The first permanent teeth to erupt in children are the: A. Central incisors at 4 years B. Canines at 7 years C. First molars at 6 years D. Second molars at 10 years Correct Answer: C. First molars at 6 years Rationale: The first permanent teeth to erupt are the first molars, typically around age 6. ________________________________________ 8. Bone Health Risk in Emphysema Question: A patient with emphysema on long-term inhaled corticosteroids should be supplemented based on all findings below except: A. Bone density test of −1.6 B. Calcium level of 8.4 mg/dL C. Vitamin D level of 26 ng/mL D. Estrogen level of 15 pg/mL Correct Answer: C. Vitamin D level of 26 ng/mL Rationale: This vitamin D level is within the normal range; other findings suggest supplementation need. ________________________________________ 9. PMR vs. Other Joint Disorders Question: A 76-year-old woman has neck, shoulder, and hip stiffness, low-grade fever, fatigue, and sudden vision loss. What is the most likely diagnosis? A. Rheumatoid arthritis B. Degenerative joint disease C. Polymyalgia rheumatica (PMR) D. Fibromyalgia Correct Answer: C. Polymyalgia rheumatica (PMR) Rationale: PMR with sudden vision loss suggests temporal arteritis—a known complication requiring urgent treatment. ________________________________________ 10. Needlestick Injury Protocol Question: After a hospital housekeeping worker suffers a needlestick injury, what is the next best step? A. Order a chest x-ray B. Recommend a tetanus booster C. Offer hepatitis B immunoglobulin D. Order ELISA test immediately Correct Answer: D. Order ELISA test immediately Rationale: Rapid HIV and hepatitis testing is the priority following a potential exposure. ________________________________________ 11. Shingles in Immunocompromised Patient Question: An elderly, immunocompromised woman with confirmed shingles should receive all treatments except: A. Acyclovir (Zovirax) B. Lidocaine 5% patch C. Zostavax vaccine D. Gabapentin Correct Answer: C. Zostavax vaccine Rationale: Zostavax is a live vaccine and contraindicated in immunocompromised patients. ________________________________________ 12. EBV and Lymphocytes Question: Which viral infection is associated with atypical lymphocytes during acute infection? A. Cytomegalovirus (CMV) B. Epstein-Barr virus (EBV) C. Human papillomavirus (HPV) D. Coxsackievirus Correct Answer: B. Epstein-Barr virus (EBV) Rationale: EBV (infectious mononucleosis) typically presents with 10% atypical lymphocytes. ________________________________________ 13. CYP450 Drug Interaction Question: Erythromycin inhibits CYP450. Which drug is not significantly affected? A. Theophylline B. Warfarin C. Diazepam D. Furosemide Correct Answer: D. Furosemide Rationale: Furosemide is not metabolized by CYP450, unlike the other listed drugs. ________________________________________ 14. Post-Strep Renal Concern in Toddler Question: A toddler treated for strep throat presents with dark urine and proteinuria. What is the next best test? A. CT scan of kidneys B. CBC and metabolic panel C. 24-hour urine for protein and creatinine D. 24-hour urine for blood, protein, and creatinine clearance Correct Answer: D. 24-hour urine for blood, protein, and creatinine clearance Rationale: Comprehensive 24-hour urine analysis is most accurate for evaluating post-strep glomerulonephritis.

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Aanp boards EXIT EXAM 2025 AND
PRACTICE EXAM |ACCURATE QUESTIONS
AND ANSWERS| VERIFIED FOR
GUARANTEED PASS |GRADED A | BRAND
NEW
1. S3 Heart Sound
Question: Patients may have an S3 heart sound present when there is increased atrial pressure
that leads to rapid ventricular filling. Which of the following statements is incorrect regarding
this heart sound?
A. It is common to hear in those with heart failure
B. It is often associated with uncontrolled hypertension
C. It may be a normal variant if heard in patients ≤ 40 years old
D. It may be noted during pregnancy, especially the third trimester
✅ Correct Answer: B. It is often associated with uncontrolled hypertension
Rationale: An S3 is linked to fluid overload states like heart failure or pregnancy. It is not
typically associated with hypertension, which more commonly results in an S4 heart sound.


2. Streptococcal Pharyngitis Treatment
Question: An 11-year-old boy presents with a 2-day sore throat, fever, exudative tonsils,
palatine petechiae, and anterior cervical lymphadenopathy. What is the most appropriate
treatment?
A. Amoxicillin (Amoxil)
B. Clindamycin (Cleocin)
C. Nystatin (Mycostatin)
D. Supportive care
✅ Correct Answer: A. Amoxicillin (Amoxil)
Rationale: Classic signs of streptococcal pharyngitis warrant antibiotic treatment. Amoxicillin is
a first-line therapy. Supportive care alone is insufficient.

,3. Disseminated Gonorrheal Infection
Question: A 21-year-old woman presents with pelvic pain, green cervical discharge,
dyspareunia, and a painful swollen knee. What is the most likely diagnosis?
A. Septic arthritis
B. Reiter's syndrome
C. Chondromalacia of the patella
D. Disseminated gonorrheal infection
✅ Correct Answer: D. Disseminated gonorrheal infection
Rationale: The combination of PID symptoms and joint pain suggests dissemination of
gonorrhea, which can lead to arthritis-like symptoms.


4. Antipsychotic for Resistant Symptoms
Question: A 28-year-old male with persistent psychotic symptoms despite risperidone therapy
should be prescribed:
A. Clozapine (Versacloz)
B. Amitriptyline (Elavil)
C. Bupropion (Wellbutrin)
D. Lithium carbonate (Eskalith)
✅ Correct Answer: A. Clozapine (Versacloz)
Rationale: Clozapine is reserved for treatment-resistant schizophrenia and has shown
effectiveness in such cases.


5. Hepatitis C Follow-Up Test
Question: A 60-year-old woman has a positive anti-HCV test. Which is the appropriate follow-up
test?
A. HCV RNA
B. HCV antibody
C. HCV core antibody
D. HCV surface antigen
✅ Correct Answer: A. HCV RNA
Rationale: The HCV RNA test determines if there is an active infection and is essential after a
positive screening test.


6. Pernicious Anemia Indicators

,Question: Which of the following is not a hematologic change associated with pernicious
anemia?
A. Hypersegmented granulocytes
B. Mean corpuscular volume of 120 fL
C. Red cell distribution width of 12.3%
D. Serum cobalamin level of 130 pg/mL
✅ Correct Answer: C. Red cell distribution width of 12.3%
Rationale: Pernicious anemia typically causes elevated RDW; 12.3% is within the normal range.


7. First Permanent Teeth
Question: The first permanent teeth to erupt in children are the:
A. Central incisors at 4 years
B. Canines at 7 years
C. First molars at 6 years
D. Second molars at 10 years
✅ Correct Answer: C. First molars at 6 years
Rationale: The first permanent teeth to erupt are the first molars, typically around age 6.


8. Bone Health Risk in Emphysema
Question: A patient with emphysema on long-term inhaled corticosteroids should be
supplemented based on all findings below except:
A. Bone density test of −1.6
B. Calcium level of 8.4 mg/dL
C. Vitamin D level of 26 ng/mL
D. Estrogen level of 15 pg/mL
✅ Correct Answer: C. Vitamin D level of 26 ng/mL
Rationale: This vitamin D level is within the normal range; other findings suggest
supplementation need.


9. PMR vs. Other Joint Disorders
Question: A 76-year-old woman has neck, shoulder, and hip stiffness, low-grade fever, fatigue,
and sudden vision loss. What is the most likely diagnosis?

, A. Rheumatoid arthritis
B. Degenerative joint disease
C. Polymyalgia rheumatica (PMR)
D. Fibromyalgia
✅ Correct Answer: C. Polymyalgia rheumatica (PMR)
Rationale: PMR with sudden vision loss suggests temporal arteritis—a known complication
requiring urgent treatment.


10. Needlestick Injury Protocol
Question: After a hospital housekeeping worker suffers a needlestick injury, what is the next
best step?
A. Order a chest x-ray
B. Recommend a tetanus booster
C. Offer hepatitis B immunoglobulin
D. Order ELISA test immediately
✅ Correct Answer: D. Order ELISA test immediately
Rationale: Rapid HIV and hepatitis testing is the priority following a potential exposure.


11. Shingles in Immunocompromised Patient
Question: An elderly, immunocompromised woman with confirmed shingles should receive all
treatments except:
A. Acyclovir (Zovirax)
B. Lidocaine 5% patch
C. Zostavax vaccine
D. Gabapentin
✅ Correct Answer: C. Zostavax vaccine
Rationale: Zostavax is a live vaccine and contraindicated in immunocompromised patients.


12. EBV and Lymphocytes
Question: Which viral infection is associated with atypical lymphocytes during acute infection?
A. Cytomegalovirus (CMV)
B. Epstein-Barr virus (EBV)
C. Human papillomavirus (HPV)
D. Coxsackievirus

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