NCLEX Practice Perfusion Questions and
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The nurse has completed an assessment on a client with a
decreased cardiac output. Which findings should receive
highest priority?
a. BP 110/62, atrial fibrillation with HR 82, bibasilar crackles
b. Confusion, urine output 15mL over the last 2 hours,
orthopnea.
c. SpO2 92 on 2 liters nasal cannula, respirations 20, 1+
edema of lower extremities.
d. Weight gain of 1kg in 3 days, BP 130/80, mild dyspnea with
exercise. - Correct Answers ✅b. A low urine output and
confusion are signs of decreased tissue perfusion. Orthopnea
is a sign of left-sided heart failure. Crackles, edema and
weight gain should be monitored closely, but the levels are
not as high a priority. With atrial fibrillation there is a loss of
atrial kick, but the blood pressure and heart rate are stable
Which of the following is an expected outcome when a client
is receiving an IV administration of furosemide?
a. Increased blood pressure
b. Increased urine output
c. Decreased pain
d. Decreased premature ventricular contractions - Correct
Answers ✅b. Furosemide is a loop diuretic that acts to
increase urine output. Furosemide does not increase blood
pressure, decrease pain, or decrease arrhythmias
,NCLEX Practice Perfusion Questions and
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The nurse is assessing clients at a health fair. Which client is
at greatest risk for coronary artery disease?
a. a 32-year-old female with mitral valve prolapse who quit
smoking 10 years ago.
b. a 43-year-old male with a family history of CAD and
cholesterol level of 158
c. A 56-year-old male with an HDL of 60 who takes
atorvastatin (Lipitor)
d. A 65-year-old female who is obese with an LDL of 188 -
Correct Answers ✅d. The woman who is 65-years-old, over
weight and has an elevated LDL is at greatest risk. Total
cholesterol >200, LDL >100, HDL <40 in men, HDL <50 in
women, men 45-years and older, women 55-years and older,
smoking and obesity increase the risk of CAD. Atorvastatin is
a medication to reduce LDL and decrease risk of CAD. The
combination of postmenopausal, obesity and high LDL
cholesterol places this client at greatest risk.
A 58-year-old female with a family history of CAD is being
seen for her annual physical exam. Fasting lab test results
include: Total cholesterol 198; LDL cholesterol 120; HDL
cholesterol 58; Triglycerides 148; Blood sugar 102; and C-
reactive protein (CRP) 4.2. The health care provider informs
the client that she will be started on a statin medication and
aspirin. The client asks the nurse why she needs to take
these medications. Which is the best response by the nurse?
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a. "The labs indicate severe hyperlipidemia and the
medications will lower your LDL, along with a low-fat diet."
b. "The triglycerides are elevated and will not return to
normal without these medications."
c. "The CRP is elevated indicating inflammation seen in
cardiovascular disease, which can be lowered by the
medications ordered."
d. "The medications are not indicated since your lab values
are all normal." - Correct Answers ✅c. CRP is a marker of
inflammation and is elevated in the presence of
cardiovascular disease. The high sensitivity CRP (hs-CRP) is
the blood test for greater accuracy in measuring the CRP to
evaluate cardiovascular risk. The family history, post-
menopausal age, LDL above optimum levels and elevated
CRP place the client at risk of CAD. Statin medications can
decrease LDL, whereas statins and aspirin can reduce CRP
and decrease the risk of MI and stroke.
An older, sedentary adult may not respond to emotional or
physical stress as well as a younger individual because of:
a. Left ventricular atrophy
b. Irregular heartbeats
c. Peripheral vascular occlusion
d. Pacemaker placement - Correct Answers ✅a. In older
adults who are less active and do not exercise the heart
muscle, atrophy can result. Disuse or deconditioning can lead
to abnormal changes in the myocardium of the older adult. As
Verified Answers, 100% Score Guarantee
Pass (Latest 2025)
The nurse has completed an assessment on a client with a
decreased cardiac output. Which findings should receive
highest priority?
a. BP 110/62, atrial fibrillation with HR 82, bibasilar crackles
b. Confusion, urine output 15mL over the last 2 hours,
orthopnea.
c. SpO2 92 on 2 liters nasal cannula, respirations 20, 1+
edema of lower extremities.
d. Weight gain of 1kg in 3 days, BP 130/80, mild dyspnea with
exercise. - Correct Answers ✅b. A low urine output and
confusion are signs of decreased tissue perfusion. Orthopnea
is a sign of left-sided heart failure. Crackles, edema and
weight gain should be monitored closely, but the levels are
not as high a priority. With atrial fibrillation there is a loss of
atrial kick, but the blood pressure and heart rate are stable
Which of the following is an expected outcome when a client
is receiving an IV administration of furosemide?
a. Increased blood pressure
b. Increased urine output
c. Decreased pain
d. Decreased premature ventricular contractions - Correct
Answers ✅b. Furosemide is a loop diuretic that acts to
increase urine output. Furosemide does not increase blood
pressure, decrease pain, or decrease arrhythmias
,NCLEX Practice Perfusion Questions and
Verified Answers, 100% Score Guarantee
Pass (Latest 2025)
The nurse is assessing clients at a health fair. Which client is
at greatest risk for coronary artery disease?
a. a 32-year-old female with mitral valve prolapse who quit
smoking 10 years ago.
b. a 43-year-old male with a family history of CAD and
cholesterol level of 158
c. A 56-year-old male with an HDL of 60 who takes
atorvastatin (Lipitor)
d. A 65-year-old female who is obese with an LDL of 188 -
Correct Answers ✅d. The woman who is 65-years-old, over
weight and has an elevated LDL is at greatest risk. Total
cholesterol >200, LDL >100, HDL <40 in men, HDL <50 in
women, men 45-years and older, women 55-years and older,
smoking and obesity increase the risk of CAD. Atorvastatin is
a medication to reduce LDL and decrease risk of CAD. The
combination of postmenopausal, obesity and high LDL
cholesterol places this client at greatest risk.
A 58-year-old female with a family history of CAD is being
seen for her annual physical exam. Fasting lab test results
include: Total cholesterol 198; LDL cholesterol 120; HDL
cholesterol 58; Triglycerides 148; Blood sugar 102; and C-
reactive protein (CRP) 4.2. The health care provider informs
the client that she will be started on a statin medication and
aspirin. The client asks the nurse why she needs to take
these medications. Which is the best response by the nurse?
, NCLEX Practice Perfusion Questions and
Verified Answers, 100% Score Guarantee
Pass (Latest 2025)
a. "The labs indicate severe hyperlipidemia and the
medications will lower your LDL, along with a low-fat diet."
b. "The triglycerides are elevated and will not return to
normal without these medications."
c. "The CRP is elevated indicating inflammation seen in
cardiovascular disease, which can be lowered by the
medications ordered."
d. "The medications are not indicated since your lab values
are all normal." - Correct Answers ✅c. CRP is a marker of
inflammation and is elevated in the presence of
cardiovascular disease. The high sensitivity CRP (hs-CRP) is
the blood test for greater accuracy in measuring the CRP to
evaluate cardiovascular risk. The family history, post-
menopausal age, LDL above optimum levels and elevated
CRP place the client at risk of CAD. Statin medications can
decrease LDL, whereas statins and aspirin can reduce CRP
and decrease the risk of MI and stroke.
An older, sedentary adult may not respond to emotional or
physical stress as well as a younger individual because of:
a. Left ventricular atrophy
b. Irregular heartbeats
c. Peripheral vascular occlusion
d. Pacemaker placement - Correct Answers ✅a. In older
adults who are less active and do not exercise the heart
muscle, atrophy can result. Disuse or deconditioning can lead
to abnormal changes in the myocardium of the older adult. As
