ATI RN LEADERSHIP PROCTORED
EXAM TEST BANK
(NGN-STYLE QUESTIONS & CASE “SCENARIO”)
400+ Qs & Ans to Pass the Exam
This ATI test contains:
400+ Leadership nursing questions
multiple-choice format (A, B, C, D) with correct answers
structured rationales.
incorporate Next Generation NCLEX (NGN)-style.
Some questions feature brief “scenario” elements and rationales
,───────────────────────────────────────────────────────
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QUESTION 1
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Scenario: A charge nurse is observing a newly licensed nurse who is caring for an adult
client with a prescription to apply an aquathermia pad to the right lower leg due to
muscle strain. The client’s vital signs are: T 37.2°C (99.0°F), HR 78/min, RR 16/min, BP
118/76 mm Hg. The client reports that the pain is mild but constant. The charge nurse
wants to ensure the newly licensed nurse safely applies and manages the aquathermia
pad.
Question: Which of the following actions by the newly licensed nurse demonstrates a
correct understanding of how to safely use an aquathermia pad?
A. Telling the client to adjust the temperature setting on the pad if it feels too warm.
B. Instructing the client to report any sensation of excessive heat or discomfort.
C. Applying the pad for 30 minutes before returning to check the client’s lower leg.
D. Decreasing the temperature by 5°F (2.8°C) if the client’s skin is reddened.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale:
• Instructing the client to promptly report excessive warmth or discomfort (Option B)
helps prevent thermal injury and is an appropriate safety measure.
• Teaching the client to self-adjust the temperature (Option A) is unsafe because
temperature changes should only be made by the nurse according to provider orders
and unit policy.
• The nurse should check the client’s skin more frequently than every 30 minutes,
typically within 15 to 20 minutes, to ensure no redness or injury (Option C is unsafe).
,• If the client’s skin becomes reddened, the nurse should discontinue therapy and
contact the provider, rather than arbitrarily decreasing the temperature (Option D).
───────────────────────────────────────────────────────
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QUESTION 2
───────────────────────────────────────────────────────
─
Scenario: A nurse manager is holding an in-service to review conflict-resolution
strategies. A staff nurse asks about the phases of conflict, noting that recognizing each
stage helps them resolve disputes more effectively.
Question: According to standard conflict theory, which of the following is the first stage
in the conflict process?
A. Perceived conflict
B. Latent conflict
C. Manifest conflict
D. Conflict aftermath
Correct Answer: B
Rationale:
• The first stage in the conflict process is latent conflict (Option B). During this stage,
conditions exist that have the potential to create conflict, even though no one may be
actively aware of it yet.
• Perceived conflict (Option A) is the second stage, where individuals become aware
that a conflict exists.
• Manifest conflict (Option C) is the fourth stage, in which parties involved begin to act
on the conflict.
,• Conflict aftermath (Option D) is the final (fifth) stage, where outcomes (positive or
negative) of the conflict become evident.
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─
QUESTION 3
───────────────────────────────────────────────────────
─
Scenario: A public health nurse is providing a staff development session about infection
control precautions for various communicable diseases. A newly licensed nurse asks
which diagnosis requires droplet precautions.
Question: Which of the following clients requires droplet precautions?
A. A client with shigella who is incontinent
B. A client with measles
C. A client with toxic shock syndrome
D. A client with pertussis
Correct Answer: D
Rationale:
• Pertussis (whooping cough) is transmitted by large respiratory droplets and requires
droplet precautions (Option D).
• Shigella infections in an incontinent client require contact precautions (Option A).
• Measles (rubeola) requires airborne precautions (Option B).
• Toxic shock syndrome requires standard precautions (Option C).
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,QUESTION 4
───────────────────────────────────────────────────────
─
Scenario: A nurse is educating a middle-aged client about their rights and benefits
under the Patient Protection and Affordable Care Act (ACA). The client states they have
concerns about losing insurance because of preexisting conditions and lifetime coverage
limits.
Question: Which of the following statements by the client indicates correct
understanding of the protections provided by the Patient Protection and Affordable Care
Act?
A. “My insurance can drop me if I use too many services in one year.”
B. “My insurance plan cannot impose lifetime coverage limits on my benefits.”
C. “My adult children can only stay on my policy until they turn 21.”
D. “My insurance will not cover any claims relating to preexisting conditions.”
Correct Answer: B
Rationale:
• The ACA prohibits annual and lifetime coverage limits (Option B) to ensure clients are
not denied necessary care.
• Insurance companies cannot cancel coverage due to frequent use of services (Option
A is incorrect).
• Dependent children can remain on a parent’s insurance policy until age 26 (Option C
is incorrect).
• The ACA prevents denial of coverage due to preexisting conditions (Option D is
incorrect).
,───────────────────────────────────────────────────────
─
QUESTION 5
───────────────────────────────────────────────────────
─
Scenario: A nurse at a community health clinic is reviewing reported infections to
determine which must be reported to local or state authorities. Four clients have
confirmed communicable diseases.
Question: Which of the following communicable diseases is classified by the CDC as a
nationally notifiable infectious condition?
A. Respiratory syncytial virus (RSV)
B. Methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus (MRSA)
C. Clostridioides difficile (C. difficile)
D. Chlamydia trachomatis
Correct Answer: D
Rationale:
• Chlamydia trachomatis is a nationally notifiable disease in all jurisdictions and must be
reported to public health authorities (Option D).
• RSV, MRSA, and C. difficile are not on the CDC’s national notifiable disease list
(Options A, B, and C).
───────────────────────────────────────────────────────
─
QUESTION 6
───────────────────────────────────────────────────────
─
,Scenario: A nurse manager notices that a staff nurse is exhibiting signs of chemical
impairment during a shift. After ensuring the nurse leaves the unit safely, the manager
plans the next steps.
Question: Which action should the nurse manager take next to address this issue?
A. Arrange a confidential meeting with the impaired nurse within 24 hours.
B. Provide ongoing private counseling sessions directly with the impaired nurse.
C. Discuss the situation with all other staff nurses to gather more information.
D. Submit an immediate report to the facility risk manager for potential legal follow-up.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale:
• After removing the chemically impaired nurse from the care setting and ensuring safe
transportation home, the nurse manager should schedule a formal, confidential meeting
within 24 hours (Option A).
• It is not appropriate for the nurse manager to provide long-term counseling (Option
B). Usually, Employee Assistance Programs (EAPs) or external services manage that.
• The manager must maintain confidentiality (Option C is inappropriate).
• While some reporting may be necessary, the immediate next step is to address the
situation directly with the nurse (Option D is premature as the initial meeting must
occur first).
───────────────────────────────────────────────────────
─
QUESTION 7
───────────────────────────────────────────────────────
─
,Scenario: A medical-surgical nurse is providing an educational session on advance
directives to a client newly diagnosed with a serious chronic illness. The client expresses
concerns about what will happen if they become unable to communicate.
Question: Which of the following statements by the client indicates an accurate
understanding of advance directives?
A. “I can’t make any changes to my advance directives once they’re signed.”
B. “These documents will describe my preferences for treatments such as medications.”
C. “My partner must be present if I become unresponsive to guide my care.”
D. “My provider will decide on my care if I can’t speak for myself.”
Correct Answer: B
Rationale:
• Advance directives outline the client’s wishes for medical treatments, including
medication, procedures, and other interventions (Option B).
• Clients can revise their advance directives any time they wish (Option A is incorrect).
• A partner does not have to be physically present for advance directives to be honored
(Option C is incorrect); the directives should be in the client’s chart.
• The provider must follow the client’s directives and cannot unilaterally make decisions
(Option D is incorrect).
───────────────────────────────────────────────────────
─
QUESTION 8
───────────────────────────────────────────────────────
─
,Scenario: A registered nurse (RN) and two unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP) are
working on a busy post-surgical unit. The charge nurse is allocating tasks to ensure
client safety and appropriate scope of practice.
Question: Which of the following tasks must be performed by the RN rather than
delegated?
A. Obtaining a client’s routine urinalysis sample
B. Completing the client’s initial admission assessment
C. Assisting a client who requires help ambulating to the bathroom
D. Documenting routine intake and output (I&O) measurements
Correct Answer: B
Rationale:
• The RN must complete the initial admission assessment (Option B). This involves
critical thinking and nursing judgment, which cannot be delegated.
• Collecting routine specimens, assisting with ambulation, and measuring and
documenting I&O (Options A, C, and D) may be delegated to UAP per facility policy and
the RN’s judgment.
───────────────────────────────────────────────────────
─
QUESTION 9
───────────────────────────────────────────────────────
─
Scenario: A charge nurse on the orthopedic unit is providing an in-service about
reducing readmissions for clients following total hip arthroplasty. The nurse emphasizes
safety measures, discharge planning, and client education.
, Question: Educating staff and advocating for improved client outcomes is an example of
which leadership role?
A. Collaboration
B. Compromising
C. Smoothing
D. Advocacy
Correct Answer: D
Rationale:
• Advocacy (Option D) involves promoting client safety, well-being, and needs. A charge
nurse who provides education that protects clients from complications is demonstrating
advocacy.
• Collaboration (Option A) entails working jointly with interdisciplinary teams.
• Compromising (Option B) and smoothing (Option C) are conflict resolution strategies,
not leadership actions specific to client safety education.
───────────────────────────────────────────────────────
─
QUESTION 10
───────────────────────────────────────────────────────
─
Scenario: A newly hired nurse is discussing phone and verbal prescriptions with a
preceptor. The preceptor emphasizes the importance of correctly receiving,
documenting, and confirming orders.
Question: Which of the following statements by the newly licensed nurse indicates a
correct understanding of telephone prescription guidelines?
EXAM TEST BANK
(NGN-STYLE QUESTIONS & CASE “SCENARIO”)
400+ Qs & Ans to Pass the Exam
This ATI test contains:
400+ Leadership nursing questions
multiple-choice format (A, B, C, D) with correct answers
structured rationales.
incorporate Next Generation NCLEX (NGN)-style.
Some questions feature brief “scenario” elements and rationales
,───────────────────────────────────────────────────────
─
QUESTION 1
───────────────────────────────────────────────────────
─
Scenario: A charge nurse is observing a newly licensed nurse who is caring for an adult
client with a prescription to apply an aquathermia pad to the right lower leg due to
muscle strain. The client’s vital signs are: T 37.2°C (99.0°F), HR 78/min, RR 16/min, BP
118/76 mm Hg. The client reports that the pain is mild but constant. The charge nurse
wants to ensure the newly licensed nurse safely applies and manages the aquathermia
pad.
Question: Which of the following actions by the newly licensed nurse demonstrates a
correct understanding of how to safely use an aquathermia pad?
A. Telling the client to adjust the temperature setting on the pad if it feels too warm.
B. Instructing the client to report any sensation of excessive heat or discomfort.
C. Applying the pad for 30 minutes before returning to check the client’s lower leg.
D. Decreasing the temperature by 5°F (2.8°C) if the client’s skin is reddened.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale:
• Instructing the client to promptly report excessive warmth or discomfort (Option B)
helps prevent thermal injury and is an appropriate safety measure.
• Teaching the client to self-adjust the temperature (Option A) is unsafe because
temperature changes should only be made by the nurse according to provider orders
and unit policy.
• The nurse should check the client’s skin more frequently than every 30 minutes,
typically within 15 to 20 minutes, to ensure no redness or injury (Option C is unsafe).
,• If the client’s skin becomes reddened, the nurse should discontinue therapy and
contact the provider, rather than arbitrarily decreasing the temperature (Option D).
───────────────────────────────────────────────────────
─
QUESTION 2
───────────────────────────────────────────────────────
─
Scenario: A nurse manager is holding an in-service to review conflict-resolution
strategies. A staff nurse asks about the phases of conflict, noting that recognizing each
stage helps them resolve disputes more effectively.
Question: According to standard conflict theory, which of the following is the first stage
in the conflict process?
A. Perceived conflict
B. Latent conflict
C. Manifest conflict
D. Conflict aftermath
Correct Answer: B
Rationale:
• The first stage in the conflict process is latent conflict (Option B). During this stage,
conditions exist that have the potential to create conflict, even though no one may be
actively aware of it yet.
• Perceived conflict (Option A) is the second stage, where individuals become aware
that a conflict exists.
• Manifest conflict (Option C) is the fourth stage, in which parties involved begin to act
on the conflict.
,• Conflict aftermath (Option D) is the final (fifth) stage, where outcomes (positive or
negative) of the conflict become evident.
───────────────────────────────────────────────────────
─
QUESTION 3
───────────────────────────────────────────────────────
─
Scenario: A public health nurse is providing a staff development session about infection
control precautions for various communicable diseases. A newly licensed nurse asks
which diagnosis requires droplet precautions.
Question: Which of the following clients requires droplet precautions?
A. A client with shigella who is incontinent
B. A client with measles
C. A client with toxic shock syndrome
D. A client with pertussis
Correct Answer: D
Rationale:
• Pertussis (whooping cough) is transmitted by large respiratory droplets and requires
droplet precautions (Option D).
• Shigella infections in an incontinent client require contact precautions (Option A).
• Measles (rubeola) requires airborne precautions (Option B).
• Toxic shock syndrome requires standard precautions (Option C).
───────────────────────────────────────────────────────
─
,QUESTION 4
───────────────────────────────────────────────────────
─
Scenario: A nurse is educating a middle-aged client about their rights and benefits
under the Patient Protection and Affordable Care Act (ACA). The client states they have
concerns about losing insurance because of preexisting conditions and lifetime coverage
limits.
Question: Which of the following statements by the client indicates correct
understanding of the protections provided by the Patient Protection and Affordable Care
Act?
A. “My insurance can drop me if I use too many services in one year.”
B. “My insurance plan cannot impose lifetime coverage limits on my benefits.”
C. “My adult children can only stay on my policy until they turn 21.”
D. “My insurance will not cover any claims relating to preexisting conditions.”
Correct Answer: B
Rationale:
• The ACA prohibits annual and lifetime coverage limits (Option B) to ensure clients are
not denied necessary care.
• Insurance companies cannot cancel coverage due to frequent use of services (Option
A is incorrect).
• Dependent children can remain on a parent’s insurance policy until age 26 (Option C
is incorrect).
• The ACA prevents denial of coverage due to preexisting conditions (Option D is
incorrect).
,───────────────────────────────────────────────────────
─
QUESTION 5
───────────────────────────────────────────────────────
─
Scenario: A nurse at a community health clinic is reviewing reported infections to
determine which must be reported to local or state authorities. Four clients have
confirmed communicable diseases.
Question: Which of the following communicable diseases is classified by the CDC as a
nationally notifiable infectious condition?
A. Respiratory syncytial virus (RSV)
B. Methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus (MRSA)
C. Clostridioides difficile (C. difficile)
D. Chlamydia trachomatis
Correct Answer: D
Rationale:
• Chlamydia trachomatis is a nationally notifiable disease in all jurisdictions and must be
reported to public health authorities (Option D).
• RSV, MRSA, and C. difficile are not on the CDC’s national notifiable disease list
(Options A, B, and C).
───────────────────────────────────────────────────────
─
QUESTION 6
───────────────────────────────────────────────────────
─
,Scenario: A nurse manager notices that a staff nurse is exhibiting signs of chemical
impairment during a shift. After ensuring the nurse leaves the unit safely, the manager
plans the next steps.
Question: Which action should the nurse manager take next to address this issue?
A. Arrange a confidential meeting with the impaired nurse within 24 hours.
B. Provide ongoing private counseling sessions directly with the impaired nurse.
C. Discuss the situation with all other staff nurses to gather more information.
D. Submit an immediate report to the facility risk manager for potential legal follow-up.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale:
• After removing the chemically impaired nurse from the care setting and ensuring safe
transportation home, the nurse manager should schedule a formal, confidential meeting
within 24 hours (Option A).
• It is not appropriate for the nurse manager to provide long-term counseling (Option
B). Usually, Employee Assistance Programs (EAPs) or external services manage that.
• The manager must maintain confidentiality (Option C is inappropriate).
• While some reporting may be necessary, the immediate next step is to address the
situation directly with the nurse (Option D is premature as the initial meeting must
occur first).
───────────────────────────────────────────────────────
─
QUESTION 7
───────────────────────────────────────────────────────
─
,Scenario: A medical-surgical nurse is providing an educational session on advance
directives to a client newly diagnosed with a serious chronic illness. The client expresses
concerns about what will happen if they become unable to communicate.
Question: Which of the following statements by the client indicates an accurate
understanding of advance directives?
A. “I can’t make any changes to my advance directives once they’re signed.”
B. “These documents will describe my preferences for treatments such as medications.”
C. “My partner must be present if I become unresponsive to guide my care.”
D. “My provider will decide on my care if I can’t speak for myself.”
Correct Answer: B
Rationale:
• Advance directives outline the client’s wishes for medical treatments, including
medication, procedures, and other interventions (Option B).
• Clients can revise their advance directives any time they wish (Option A is incorrect).
• A partner does not have to be physically present for advance directives to be honored
(Option C is incorrect); the directives should be in the client’s chart.
• The provider must follow the client’s directives and cannot unilaterally make decisions
(Option D is incorrect).
───────────────────────────────────────────────────────
─
QUESTION 8
───────────────────────────────────────────────────────
─
,Scenario: A registered nurse (RN) and two unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP) are
working on a busy post-surgical unit. The charge nurse is allocating tasks to ensure
client safety and appropriate scope of practice.
Question: Which of the following tasks must be performed by the RN rather than
delegated?
A. Obtaining a client’s routine urinalysis sample
B. Completing the client’s initial admission assessment
C. Assisting a client who requires help ambulating to the bathroom
D. Documenting routine intake and output (I&O) measurements
Correct Answer: B
Rationale:
• The RN must complete the initial admission assessment (Option B). This involves
critical thinking and nursing judgment, which cannot be delegated.
• Collecting routine specimens, assisting with ambulation, and measuring and
documenting I&O (Options A, C, and D) may be delegated to UAP per facility policy and
the RN’s judgment.
───────────────────────────────────────────────────────
─
QUESTION 9
───────────────────────────────────────────────────────
─
Scenario: A charge nurse on the orthopedic unit is providing an in-service about
reducing readmissions for clients following total hip arthroplasty. The nurse emphasizes
safety measures, discharge planning, and client education.
, Question: Educating staff and advocating for improved client outcomes is an example of
which leadership role?
A. Collaboration
B. Compromising
C. Smoothing
D. Advocacy
Correct Answer: D
Rationale:
• Advocacy (Option D) involves promoting client safety, well-being, and needs. A charge
nurse who provides education that protects clients from complications is demonstrating
advocacy.
• Collaboration (Option A) entails working jointly with interdisciplinary teams.
• Compromising (Option B) and smoothing (Option C) are conflict resolution strategies,
not leadership actions specific to client safety education.
───────────────────────────────────────────────────────
─
QUESTION 10
───────────────────────────────────────────────────────
─
Scenario: A newly hired nurse is discussing phone and verbal prescriptions with a
preceptor. The preceptor emphasizes the importance of correctly receiving,
documenting, and confirming orders.
Question: Which of the following statements by the newly licensed nurse indicates a
correct understanding of telephone prescription guidelines?
