MASTERING DIFFERENTIAL
DIAGNOSIS WITH THE DSM-5-
TR OVER 400 QUESTION AND
ANSWER 2025
[Document subtitle]
[DATE]
[COMPANY NAME]
[Company address]
,1. Mental health professionals can reduce errors in diagnosis of mental disorders
by using:
A. A structured clinical interview process.
2. Recommended practices for conducting a differential diagnosis include:
C. Considering medical conditions could be causing the symptoms.
3. When newly assigned to a client who has been diagnosed in the last six months
by a psychiatrist, the mental health professional should:
A. Conduct a clinical (intake) interview.
4. Substances of abuse, which can induce other mental disorders, when the
individual is intoxicated, or in a state of withdrawal, include:
C. Anxiolytics.
5. Select the accurate statement about forming an initial DSM-5-TR diagnosis list:
D. The DSM-5-TR manual does not specify the order to list the client's mental
disorders, but placing the primary disorder first is good practice.
6. Research of the best method to gather current drug use information from clients
concluded:
B. More accurate drug information is obtained when the client provides both
written and verbal responses.
7. Identify the factor that is NOT an unknown source of error during a clinical intake
interview:
C. Reading the client's chart before the interview.
8. During Phase III, "Focused Exploration" in the intake interview, the clinician's
main focus is on:
D. Symptoms for syndromes not already mentioned by the client.
9. Genetic research has identified a common set of polygenes for psychosis,
shared by individuals with mental disorders in this pair of DSM-5-TR categories:
B. Bipolar disorders and schizophrenia spectrum disorders.
10. What DSM-5-TR category of mental disorders is one of the three most frequently
comorbid with another mental disorder?
A. Depressive disorders.
11. A differential diagnosis list for children and disruptive behavior would include
diagnoses from all of these DSM-5-TR categories, except _________.
C. Anxiety disorders.
12. What differentiates panic attacks of clients with panic disorder versus clients
with post-traumatic stress disorder?
A. Whether the first attacks are cued or uncued.
,13. When a client has persistent anxiety and worries about becoming ill, the mental
health professionals should consider which category of disorders?
C. Somatic symptom and related disorders.
14. Which DSM-5-TR mental disorder is the "hallmark" disorder for its diagnostic
category?
D. Major depressive disorder.
15. Prolonged grief disorder can be differentiated from other depressive disorders by
symptoms of:
B. Intense emotional pain related to the loss.
16. Which parent or teacher description of their child could be associated with
impulsivity?
C. He overreacts to frustration, disappointment, and mistakes.
17. When a client reports being a victim of trauma, what information is essential for
a differential diagnosis?
B. The physical injuries the client received.
18. The clinician needs to conduct a differential diagnosis, even if an experience of
trauma clearly preceded the onset of symptoms, because:
D. Trauma and stress are important in the pathogenesis of all DSM-5-TR
disorders, not just the trauma and stressor-related disorders.
19. Which statement is true about the DSM-5-TR "Other Conditions" category
regarding self-injurious behavior?
B. Knowledge of the individual's intent when inflicting bodily harm is
necessary for diagnosis.
20. When a child presents with angry, disruptive behavior symptoms, a differential
diagnosis list would include all of the following disorders, except _______.
B. Separation anxiety.
21. Prescription medications frequently induce a syndrome of:
C. Depression.
22. Impulsivity, a cluster of cognitive and behavioral symptoms, includes the
following symptom:
B. Quick decision making.
23. Which statement about executive functioning is accurate?
B. Executive functioning includes the basic cognitive processes of
attentional control, working memory, and fluid thinking.
24. The diagnostic definition of a traumatic event in the DSM-5-TR post-traumatic
stress disorder is narrow. Which of these stressful events would meet the
, criteria?
B. Witnessing a fatal automobile crash.
25. ___________ is the medical term for two disorders or illnesses occurring in the
same person, simultaneously or sequentially.
D. Comorbidity.
26. The first phase of the clinical interview is completed when the clinician can
determine the client _______.
C. Is confused or forgetful.
27. The repetitious thoughts of a client with generalized anxiety disorder can be
differentiated from the repetitious thoughts of a client with obsessive-
compulsive disorder, by noting if:
A. The thoughts are reality-based versus odd or irrational.
28. Which of these statements about the symptom of anxiety is NOT accurate?
D. Anxiety symptoms are rarely produced by endocrine disorders.
29. Which class of psychotropic drugs can produce a syndrome of disruptive
behaviors in adults?
B. SSRI antidepressants.
30. Which of the following diagnostic models is currently most used globally to
categorize and diagnose mental disorders?
C. ICD-10.
31. Which mental disorder should be on your differential diagnosis list for a client
who presents with symptoms of psychosis?
A. Major depressive disorder.
32. The mental disorders, major depressive disorder and persistent depressive
disorder, share many of the same criteria symptoms. Which symptom helps
differentiate between these depressive disorders?
D. Psychomotor retardation.
33. What category of mental disorders is most frequently comorbid with depressive
disorders?
C. Anxiety disorders.
34. Which statement is accurate about the diagnosis of PTSD in a child age 6 years
old or younger?
B. Impairment in relationships with parents, peers, and caregivers is the
indicator of significant impairment in functioning.
DIAGNOSIS WITH THE DSM-5-
TR OVER 400 QUESTION AND
ANSWER 2025
[Document subtitle]
[DATE]
[COMPANY NAME]
[Company address]
,1. Mental health professionals can reduce errors in diagnosis of mental disorders
by using:
A. A structured clinical interview process.
2. Recommended practices for conducting a differential diagnosis include:
C. Considering medical conditions could be causing the symptoms.
3. When newly assigned to a client who has been diagnosed in the last six months
by a psychiatrist, the mental health professional should:
A. Conduct a clinical (intake) interview.
4. Substances of abuse, which can induce other mental disorders, when the
individual is intoxicated, or in a state of withdrawal, include:
C. Anxiolytics.
5. Select the accurate statement about forming an initial DSM-5-TR diagnosis list:
D. The DSM-5-TR manual does not specify the order to list the client's mental
disorders, but placing the primary disorder first is good practice.
6. Research of the best method to gather current drug use information from clients
concluded:
B. More accurate drug information is obtained when the client provides both
written and verbal responses.
7. Identify the factor that is NOT an unknown source of error during a clinical intake
interview:
C. Reading the client's chart before the interview.
8. During Phase III, "Focused Exploration" in the intake interview, the clinician's
main focus is on:
D. Symptoms for syndromes not already mentioned by the client.
9. Genetic research has identified a common set of polygenes for psychosis,
shared by individuals with mental disorders in this pair of DSM-5-TR categories:
B. Bipolar disorders and schizophrenia spectrum disorders.
10. What DSM-5-TR category of mental disorders is one of the three most frequently
comorbid with another mental disorder?
A. Depressive disorders.
11. A differential diagnosis list for children and disruptive behavior would include
diagnoses from all of these DSM-5-TR categories, except _________.
C. Anxiety disorders.
12. What differentiates panic attacks of clients with panic disorder versus clients
with post-traumatic stress disorder?
A. Whether the first attacks are cued or uncued.
,13. When a client has persistent anxiety and worries about becoming ill, the mental
health professionals should consider which category of disorders?
C. Somatic symptom and related disorders.
14. Which DSM-5-TR mental disorder is the "hallmark" disorder for its diagnostic
category?
D. Major depressive disorder.
15. Prolonged grief disorder can be differentiated from other depressive disorders by
symptoms of:
B. Intense emotional pain related to the loss.
16. Which parent or teacher description of their child could be associated with
impulsivity?
C. He overreacts to frustration, disappointment, and mistakes.
17. When a client reports being a victim of trauma, what information is essential for
a differential diagnosis?
B. The physical injuries the client received.
18. The clinician needs to conduct a differential diagnosis, even if an experience of
trauma clearly preceded the onset of symptoms, because:
D. Trauma and stress are important in the pathogenesis of all DSM-5-TR
disorders, not just the trauma and stressor-related disorders.
19. Which statement is true about the DSM-5-TR "Other Conditions" category
regarding self-injurious behavior?
B. Knowledge of the individual's intent when inflicting bodily harm is
necessary for diagnosis.
20. When a child presents with angry, disruptive behavior symptoms, a differential
diagnosis list would include all of the following disorders, except _______.
B. Separation anxiety.
21. Prescription medications frequently induce a syndrome of:
C. Depression.
22. Impulsivity, a cluster of cognitive and behavioral symptoms, includes the
following symptom:
B. Quick decision making.
23. Which statement about executive functioning is accurate?
B. Executive functioning includes the basic cognitive processes of
attentional control, working memory, and fluid thinking.
24. The diagnostic definition of a traumatic event in the DSM-5-TR post-traumatic
stress disorder is narrow. Which of these stressful events would meet the
, criteria?
B. Witnessing a fatal automobile crash.
25. ___________ is the medical term for two disorders or illnesses occurring in the
same person, simultaneously or sequentially.
D. Comorbidity.
26. The first phase of the clinical interview is completed when the clinician can
determine the client _______.
C. Is confused or forgetful.
27. The repetitious thoughts of a client with generalized anxiety disorder can be
differentiated from the repetitious thoughts of a client with obsessive-
compulsive disorder, by noting if:
A. The thoughts are reality-based versus odd or irrational.
28. Which of these statements about the symptom of anxiety is NOT accurate?
D. Anxiety symptoms are rarely produced by endocrine disorders.
29. Which class of psychotropic drugs can produce a syndrome of disruptive
behaviors in adults?
B. SSRI antidepressants.
30. Which of the following diagnostic models is currently most used globally to
categorize and diagnose mental disorders?
C. ICD-10.
31. Which mental disorder should be on your differential diagnosis list for a client
who presents with symptoms of psychosis?
A. Major depressive disorder.
32. The mental disorders, major depressive disorder and persistent depressive
disorder, share many of the same criteria symptoms. Which symptom helps
differentiate between these depressive disorders?
D. Psychomotor retardation.
33. What category of mental disorders is most frequently comorbid with depressive
disorders?
C. Anxiety disorders.
34. Which statement is accurate about the diagnosis of PTSD in a child age 6 years
old or younger?
B. Impairment in relationships with parents, peers, and caregivers is the
indicator of significant impairment in functioning.
