FDOPS 1 Questions and Answers Rated A+
A ________ is within the high level airspace, and designated Class _______ airspace. -
ANSWER-Military Flying Area, F
A civilian DME receiver is capable of receiving distance information from what? -
ANSWER-TACAN station
A DH in respect of an IFR approach procedure is defined as what? - ANSWER-a
specific height at which a missed approach must be initiated during a precision
approach if the required visual reference necessary to land has not been stablished.
A flight dispatcher has completed his/her initial competency check on May 13, this year.
When must he/she complete his/her next competency check by? - ANSWER-May 14th,
next year
A maneuvering area is what? - ANSWER-taxiways, and runways NOT APRONS
A new or replacing NOTAM without an APRX is valid for? - ANSWER-until the time
quoted in the NOTAM
A nose up attitude is followed by an increase in airspeed without an increase is power
application. What has happened? - ANSWER-a blocked pitot tube (the only source is
that static port therefore making the ASI an Altimeter)
A quick donning mask is an oxygen mask that can be secured to the face within -------
and which must be worn by _______ when operating above what altitude? - ANSWER-
5 seconds, the Pilot in Control, FL410
A straight line drawn on what chart represents a great circle? - ANSWER-VTA & WAC &
Any Transverse Mercator projection
ADF coastal refraction error is most pronounced when the aircraft is? - ANSWER-30
degrees or less from shoreline
ADF night effect error Is most significant when? - ANSWER-Just after sunset, and just
before sunrise.
ADIZ rules apply to who? - ANSWER-all aircraft
After how many minutes of entering the North Atlantic Region (NAT), must the
transponder be set to _______? - ANSWER-30 minutes/2000
After PIC accepts operational flight plan, who is responsible for flight watch? -
ANSWER-the PIC, and dispatcher
,Aircraft on final approach to downsloping runway, the pilot should be alert for what
illusion? - ANSWER-the aircraft will appear to be too low, leading to him/her coming in
too high and therefore overshooting.
Airline operation, above 8,000ft, undiluted first aid O2 is required for ______% of the
pax for _____ hours, or the duration of the flight, whichever is longer. - ANSWER-2% of
the pax, and 1 hour
Airline turbo-jets require how much fuel before departure? - ANSWER-enough to reach
destination, taking into account delays, and weather, plus additional fuel to allow the
aircraft to descend to lower of single engine inoperative ceiling or 10,000 feet ASL, to
cruise at that altitude to a suitable aerodrome, and hold for 30 mins at an altitude of
1,500 feet above aerodrome elevation.
Airplane wake turbulence will be greatest in which of the following weight, configuration
and speeds? - ANSWER-Heavy, clean and slow.
Airspace designated CYA 413 (A) is an example of what? - ANSWER-Class F advisory
airspace (aerobatic)
Altimeter static system testing is required for VFR aircraft within Class B airspace the
preceding ______ months - ANSWER-24 months
An aft C.G. is stable, or unstable, and about which axis? - ANSWER-Unstable,
longitudinally about the lateral axis
An aircraft is heading 090 M. The fixed card ADF reads 045. What is the bearing to the
station. - ANSWER-135
An aircraft owner is required to retain all entries of the aircraft journey log for how long?
- ANSWER-1 year
An Airline operation under Part 705 involves and air transport service that uses what? -
ANSWER-airplanes with a MCTOW of 19,000lbs or more or for which a Canadian type
certificate has been issued authorizing the Transport or 20 or more pax.
An altitude alerting system or device is required equipment for ------- , and a ground
proximity warning system (GPWS) is required equipment for _______ - ANSWER-turbo-
jet powered airplanes, or turbo-jet powered airplanes flown with commuter or airline with
a MCTOW of more than 15,000kgs.
An ILS CATI system is designed to permit operations down to minimums of ______
feet, and RVR ________, with a high probability of success - ANSWER-200ft & RVR
2600
, ATC enroute radar separation for aircraft in controlled airspace is provided to: -
ANSWER-VFR, IFR, and CVFR aircraft
ATC needs to be notified if your TAS/MACH is different by what amount from your flight
plan? - ANSWER-.01 mach or 5% of TAS
AWBS is proved to flight crews by what? - ANSWER-FSS/FIC's
Back up power for a CAT II ILS system must be available within how many seconds? -
ANSWER-1 second
Based on a triangle of velocities, the GROUND VECTOR consists of what? - ANSWER-
true track, and ground speed
Based on the triangle of velocities, the AIR VECTOR consists of the ________ -
ANSWER-true heading, and true airspeed
Black hole illusion at night with a large runway is responsible for what? - ANSWER-
Being too high, leading to an undershoot condition. (you think you're low, so you'll come
in higher than you should)
Can non RVSM approved aircraft operate in RVSM airspace. - ANSWER-Yes they can,
but only if approved, and they will still require 2000 foot separation
Canadian aircraft with 35 pax seats operating in the US, needs what TCAS equipment?
- ANSWER-TCAS/ACAS II is mandatory
Canadian Commercial Aircraft operating internationally over foreign territory - any
applicable over-flight charges are to be paid by? - ANSWER-the operator
Cockpit familiarization training for dispatchers is required when? - ANSWER-for initial
and recurrent training
Commuter Operation - an approved CVR is mandatory for large, multi engine, turbine
powered airplanes that have a min flight crew requirement of at least 2 pilots and a pax
seating configuration of what? - ANSWER-6 or more
Commuter Operation under Part 704 involves an air transport service that uses what? -
ANSWER-multi-engine aircraft with a MCTOW of 19,000lbs or less with a seating
configuration of 10-19 seats, excluding pilot seats.
Control area extensions - dimensions and class of airspace - ANSWER-2200AGL -
17,999ASL - E
Course deviation needle sensitivity for RNAV - ANSWER-remains constant, regardless
of distance to waypoint.
A ________ is within the high level airspace, and designated Class _______ airspace. -
ANSWER-Military Flying Area, F
A civilian DME receiver is capable of receiving distance information from what? -
ANSWER-TACAN station
A DH in respect of an IFR approach procedure is defined as what? - ANSWER-a
specific height at which a missed approach must be initiated during a precision
approach if the required visual reference necessary to land has not been stablished.
A flight dispatcher has completed his/her initial competency check on May 13, this year.
When must he/she complete his/her next competency check by? - ANSWER-May 14th,
next year
A maneuvering area is what? - ANSWER-taxiways, and runways NOT APRONS
A new or replacing NOTAM without an APRX is valid for? - ANSWER-until the time
quoted in the NOTAM
A nose up attitude is followed by an increase in airspeed without an increase is power
application. What has happened? - ANSWER-a blocked pitot tube (the only source is
that static port therefore making the ASI an Altimeter)
A quick donning mask is an oxygen mask that can be secured to the face within -------
and which must be worn by _______ when operating above what altitude? - ANSWER-
5 seconds, the Pilot in Control, FL410
A straight line drawn on what chart represents a great circle? - ANSWER-VTA & WAC &
Any Transverse Mercator projection
ADF coastal refraction error is most pronounced when the aircraft is? - ANSWER-30
degrees or less from shoreline
ADF night effect error Is most significant when? - ANSWER-Just after sunset, and just
before sunrise.
ADIZ rules apply to who? - ANSWER-all aircraft
After how many minutes of entering the North Atlantic Region (NAT), must the
transponder be set to _______? - ANSWER-30 minutes/2000
After PIC accepts operational flight plan, who is responsible for flight watch? -
ANSWER-the PIC, and dispatcher
,Aircraft on final approach to downsloping runway, the pilot should be alert for what
illusion? - ANSWER-the aircraft will appear to be too low, leading to him/her coming in
too high and therefore overshooting.
Airline operation, above 8,000ft, undiluted first aid O2 is required for ______% of the
pax for _____ hours, or the duration of the flight, whichever is longer. - ANSWER-2% of
the pax, and 1 hour
Airline turbo-jets require how much fuel before departure? - ANSWER-enough to reach
destination, taking into account delays, and weather, plus additional fuel to allow the
aircraft to descend to lower of single engine inoperative ceiling or 10,000 feet ASL, to
cruise at that altitude to a suitable aerodrome, and hold for 30 mins at an altitude of
1,500 feet above aerodrome elevation.
Airplane wake turbulence will be greatest in which of the following weight, configuration
and speeds? - ANSWER-Heavy, clean and slow.
Airspace designated CYA 413 (A) is an example of what? - ANSWER-Class F advisory
airspace (aerobatic)
Altimeter static system testing is required for VFR aircraft within Class B airspace the
preceding ______ months - ANSWER-24 months
An aft C.G. is stable, or unstable, and about which axis? - ANSWER-Unstable,
longitudinally about the lateral axis
An aircraft is heading 090 M. The fixed card ADF reads 045. What is the bearing to the
station. - ANSWER-135
An aircraft owner is required to retain all entries of the aircraft journey log for how long?
- ANSWER-1 year
An Airline operation under Part 705 involves and air transport service that uses what? -
ANSWER-airplanes with a MCTOW of 19,000lbs or more or for which a Canadian type
certificate has been issued authorizing the Transport or 20 or more pax.
An altitude alerting system or device is required equipment for ------- , and a ground
proximity warning system (GPWS) is required equipment for _______ - ANSWER-turbo-
jet powered airplanes, or turbo-jet powered airplanes flown with commuter or airline with
a MCTOW of more than 15,000kgs.
An ILS CATI system is designed to permit operations down to minimums of ______
feet, and RVR ________, with a high probability of success - ANSWER-200ft & RVR
2600
, ATC enroute radar separation for aircraft in controlled airspace is provided to: -
ANSWER-VFR, IFR, and CVFR aircraft
ATC needs to be notified if your TAS/MACH is different by what amount from your flight
plan? - ANSWER-.01 mach or 5% of TAS
AWBS is proved to flight crews by what? - ANSWER-FSS/FIC's
Back up power for a CAT II ILS system must be available within how many seconds? -
ANSWER-1 second
Based on a triangle of velocities, the GROUND VECTOR consists of what? - ANSWER-
true track, and ground speed
Based on the triangle of velocities, the AIR VECTOR consists of the ________ -
ANSWER-true heading, and true airspeed
Black hole illusion at night with a large runway is responsible for what? - ANSWER-
Being too high, leading to an undershoot condition. (you think you're low, so you'll come
in higher than you should)
Can non RVSM approved aircraft operate in RVSM airspace. - ANSWER-Yes they can,
but only if approved, and they will still require 2000 foot separation
Canadian aircraft with 35 pax seats operating in the US, needs what TCAS equipment?
- ANSWER-TCAS/ACAS II is mandatory
Canadian Commercial Aircraft operating internationally over foreign territory - any
applicable over-flight charges are to be paid by? - ANSWER-the operator
Cockpit familiarization training for dispatchers is required when? - ANSWER-for initial
and recurrent training
Commuter Operation - an approved CVR is mandatory for large, multi engine, turbine
powered airplanes that have a min flight crew requirement of at least 2 pilots and a pax
seating configuration of what? - ANSWER-6 or more
Commuter Operation under Part 704 involves an air transport service that uses what? -
ANSWER-multi-engine aircraft with a MCTOW of 19,000lbs or less with a seating
configuration of 10-19 seats, excluding pilot seats.
Control area extensions - dimensions and class of airspace - ANSWER-2200AGL -
17,999ASL - E
Course deviation needle sensitivity for RNAV - ANSWER-remains constant, regardless
of distance to waypoint.
