nurs 465 exam 2 Questions and answers
Newest RATED A+ 100% PASS
Patient's Bill of Rights - Correct Answers all patients have the right to:
II! II! II! II! II! II! II! II! II! II! II! II! II! II! II! II!
- privacy
II!
- refusal of treatment or medications
II! II! II! II! II!
- least restrictive environment
II! II! II!
- informed consent
II! II!
- make / receive phone calls
II! II! II! II! II! II!
- send / receive mail
II! II! II! II!
II! APD (advanced psychiatric directive) - Correct Answers an APD identifies a patients treatment choices
II! II! II! II! II! II! II! II! II! II! II! II! II! II! II! II! II!
II! and surrogate decision maker.
II! II! II!
II! implied consent - Correct Answers client adheres to instructions provided by the nurse; ex: the nurse is
II! II! II! II! II! II! II! II! II! II! II! II! II! II! II! II! II! II! II! II!
II! preparing to administer a TB test and the client holds out his arm for the nurse.
II! II! II! II! II! II! II! II! II! II! II! II! II! II! II!
II! what is the exception for the right to refuse treatment? - Correct Answers a patient cannot refuse
II! II! II! II! II! II! II! II! II! II! II! II! II! II! II! II! II! II! II! II!
II! treatment in an emergency event to prevent serious and imminent harm to self or others.
II! II! II! II! II! II! II! II! II! II! II! II! II! II!
II! Restraint (definiton) - Correct Answers Any manual method, physical or mechanical device, material, or
II! II! II! II! II! II! II! II! II! II! II! II! II! II! II! II! II!
II! equipment that restricts freedom of movement II! II! II! II! II!
II! seclusion (definition) - Correct Answers involuntary confinement in locked room equipped with security
II! II! II! II! II! II! II! II! II! II! II! II! II! II! II! II!
II! window or camera for direct visual monitoring II! II! II! II! II! II!
II! rules for use of restraint + seclusion (S & R) - Correct Answers 1. use only for shortest time necessary
II! II! II! II! II! II! II! II! II! II! II! II! II! II! II! II! II! II! II! II! II! II! II!
2. Permitted only when client is imminently aggressive/dangerous
II! II! II! II! II! II! II!
3. patient needs a 1:1 and on observation
II! II! II! II! II! II! II!
,II! Immediate risk of harm to the patient or others Alternative, less-restrictive measures fail to protect the
II! II! II! II! II! II! II! II! II! II! II! II! II! II! II!
II! patient and others from harm. - Correct Answers when is S & R authorized as interventions:
II! II! II! II! II! II! II! II! II! II! II! II! II! II! II! II! II! II! II!
II! Contraindications for Seclusion & Restraint - Correct Answers Extremely unstable medical & psychiatric II! II! II! II! II! II! II! II! II! II! II! II! II! II! II! II!
II! conditions
Clients with suicide risk II! II! II!
Client experiencing drug reaction or OD II! II! II! II! II!
Punishment or for staff convenience II! II! II! II!
II! rules for involuntary admission - Correct Answers -Must present a clear risk of harm to self or others.
II! II! II! II! II! II! II! II! II! II! II! II! II! II! II! II! II! II! II! II! II!
-Pt may be held on an emergency basis for a limited period of time against their will.
II! II! II! II! II! II! II! II! II! II! II! II! II! II! II! II!
-Inability to care for self. II! II! II! II!
II! AMA - Correct Answers patient signs out against medical advice from inpatient treatment.
II! II! II! II! II! II! II! II! II! II! II! II! II! II! II! II! II!
- ** Cannot hold patient who presents no risk to self or others this is false imprisonment **
II! II! II! II! II! II! II! II! II! II! II! II! II! II! II! II! II!
II! Exceptions to client confidentiality - Correct Answers 1) The client is dangerous and made specific
II! II! II! II! II! II! II! II! II! II! II! II! II! II! II! II! II! II!
II! threats of violence toward an identified, accessible person with the means to carry the act out
II! II! II! II! II! II! II! II! II! II! II! II! II! II! II!
2) The client is a minor, elderly, or disabled & is thought to be a victim of abuse; nurses are mandated
II! II! II! II! II! II! II! II! II! II! II! II! II! II! II! II! II! II! II! II!
reporters
II!
3) Disclosures that must be made to other professionals for coordination of care or insurance issues
II! II! II! II! II! II! II! II! II! II! II! II! II! II! II!
II! unintentional tort - Correct Answers Negligence, malpractice, conduct that falls below a standard of II! II! II! II! II! II! II! II! II! II! II! II! II! II! II! II! II!
II! care necessary to protect others from unreasonable risks of harm.
II! II! II! II! II! II! II! II! II!
II! Negligence /Malpractice - Correct Answers An act or an omission that breaches the duty of due care &
II! II! II! II! II! II! II! II! II! II! II! II! II! II! II! II! II! II! II! II! II!
II! results in or is responsible for a person's injuriesImproper, illegal, negligent professional activity or
II! II! II! II! II! II! II! II! II! II! II! II! II!
II! treatmentPractice beyond your scope of practice II! II! II! II! II!
II! Elements of Nursing Negligence - Correct Answers -Duty of due care established (measured by standard
II! II! II! II! II! II! II! II! II! II! II! II! II! II! II! II! II! II!
II! of care) II!
, -Performance breached the duty owed by falling below or deviating from the accepted standard of care II! II! II! II! II! II! II! II! II! II! II! II! II! II! II!
-The act was the proximate cause of the plaintiff's injury & it was foreseeable that it would cause an injury.
II! II! II! II! II! II! II! II! II! II! II! II! II! II! II! II! II! II! II!
- The consumer sustained injury or harm
II! II! II! II! II! II!
II! intentional torts - Correct Answers Harm caused by a deliberate action II! II! II! II! II! II! II! II! II! II! II! II! II! II!
-Assault: threats causing fear of being touched II! II! II! II! II! II!
-Battery: unwarranted or harmful physical contactFalse imprisonment
II! II! II! II! II! II!
II! three elements to prove liability for intentional tort - Correct Answers Willful, voluntary act
II! II! II! II! II! II! II! II! II! II! II! II! II! II! II! II! II!
Intention to bring about consequences or injury II! II! II! II! II! II!
Act was asubstantial factor in injury/consequences
II! II! II! II! II!
II! when does a crisis occur - Correct Answers when there is a perceived challenge or threat that
II! II! II! II! II! II! II! II! II! II! II! II! II! II! II! II! II! II! II! II!
II! overwhelms the capacity of the individual to cope effectively with the event II! II! II! II! II! II! II! II! II! II! II!
II! key points for a crisis - Correct Answers a crisis is a time limited event that triggers adaptive or non
II! II! II! II! II! II! II! II! II! II! II! II! II! II! II! II! II! II! II! II! II! II! II!
II! adaptive responses to maturational, situational, or traumatic experiences.
II! II! II! II! II! II! II! II!
- can be positive or negative
II! II! II! II! II!
II! crisis can be invoked by - Correct Answers many things including:
II! II! II! II! II! II! II! II! II! II! II! II! II! II!
- natural disasters, human-made disasters, interpersonal events, acute stress disorder, significantly,
II! II! II! II! II! II! II! II! II! II!
distress or social functioning is impaired, or PTSD like triggers
II! II! II! II! II! II! II! II! II! II!
II! phases of a crisis - Correct Answers Phase 1: Person confronted by conflict that threatens self-concept
II! II! II! II! II! II! II! II! II! II! II! II! II! II! II! II! II! II! II!
II! responds with increased anxiety. II! II! II!
Phase 2: If the usual defensive response fails and if threat persists, then anxiety escalates. Trial-and-error
II! II! II! II! II! II! II! II! II! II! II! II! II! II! II!
begins.
II! II!
Phase 3: If the trial-and-error attempts fail, then anxiety can escalate to severe and panic levels.
II! II! II! II! II! II! II! II! II! II! II! II! II! II! II! II!
Newest RATED A+ 100% PASS
Patient's Bill of Rights - Correct Answers all patients have the right to:
II! II! II! II! II! II! II! II! II! II! II! II! II! II! II! II!
- privacy
II!
- refusal of treatment or medications
II! II! II! II! II!
- least restrictive environment
II! II! II!
- informed consent
II! II!
- make / receive phone calls
II! II! II! II! II! II!
- send / receive mail
II! II! II! II!
II! APD (advanced psychiatric directive) - Correct Answers an APD identifies a patients treatment choices
II! II! II! II! II! II! II! II! II! II! II! II! II! II! II! II! II!
II! and surrogate decision maker.
II! II! II!
II! implied consent - Correct Answers client adheres to instructions provided by the nurse; ex: the nurse is
II! II! II! II! II! II! II! II! II! II! II! II! II! II! II! II! II! II! II! II!
II! preparing to administer a TB test and the client holds out his arm for the nurse.
II! II! II! II! II! II! II! II! II! II! II! II! II! II! II!
II! what is the exception for the right to refuse treatment? - Correct Answers a patient cannot refuse
II! II! II! II! II! II! II! II! II! II! II! II! II! II! II! II! II! II! II! II!
II! treatment in an emergency event to prevent serious and imminent harm to self or others.
II! II! II! II! II! II! II! II! II! II! II! II! II! II!
II! Restraint (definiton) - Correct Answers Any manual method, physical or mechanical device, material, or
II! II! II! II! II! II! II! II! II! II! II! II! II! II! II! II! II!
II! equipment that restricts freedom of movement II! II! II! II! II!
II! seclusion (definition) - Correct Answers involuntary confinement in locked room equipped with security
II! II! II! II! II! II! II! II! II! II! II! II! II! II! II! II!
II! window or camera for direct visual monitoring II! II! II! II! II! II!
II! rules for use of restraint + seclusion (S & R) - Correct Answers 1. use only for shortest time necessary
II! II! II! II! II! II! II! II! II! II! II! II! II! II! II! II! II! II! II! II! II! II! II!
2. Permitted only when client is imminently aggressive/dangerous
II! II! II! II! II! II! II!
3. patient needs a 1:1 and on observation
II! II! II! II! II! II! II!
,II! Immediate risk of harm to the patient or others Alternative, less-restrictive measures fail to protect the
II! II! II! II! II! II! II! II! II! II! II! II! II! II! II!
II! patient and others from harm. - Correct Answers when is S & R authorized as interventions:
II! II! II! II! II! II! II! II! II! II! II! II! II! II! II! II! II! II! II!
II! Contraindications for Seclusion & Restraint - Correct Answers Extremely unstable medical & psychiatric II! II! II! II! II! II! II! II! II! II! II! II! II! II! II! II!
II! conditions
Clients with suicide risk II! II! II!
Client experiencing drug reaction or OD II! II! II! II! II!
Punishment or for staff convenience II! II! II! II!
II! rules for involuntary admission - Correct Answers -Must present a clear risk of harm to self or others.
II! II! II! II! II! II! II! II! II! II! II! II! II! II! II! II! II! II! II! II! II!
-Pt may be held on an emergency basis for a limited period of time against their will.
II! II! II! II! II! II! II! II! II! II! II! II! II! II! II! II!
-Inability to care for self. II! II! II! II!
II! AMA - Correct Answers patient signs out against medical advice from inpatient treatment.
II! II! II! II! II! II! II! II! II! II! II! II! II! II! II! II! II!
- ** Cannot hold patient who presents no risk to self or others this is false imprisonment **
II! II! II! II! II! II! II! II! II! II! II! II! II! II! II! II! II!
II! Exceptions to client confidentiality - Correct Answers 1) The client is dangerous and made specific
II! II! II! II! II! II! II! II! II! II! II! II! II! II! II! II! II! II!
II! threats of violence toward an identified, accessible person with the means to carry the act out
II! II! II! II! II! II! II! II! II! II! II! II! II! II! II!
2) The client is a minor, elderly, or disabled & is thought to be a victim of abuse; nurses are mandated
II! II! II! II! II! II! II! II! II! II! II! II! II! II! II! II! II! II! II! II!
reporters
II!
3) Disclosures that must be made to other professionals for coordination of care or insurance issues
II! II! II! II! II! II! II! II! II! II! II! II! II! II! II!
II! unintentional tort - Correct Answers Negligence, malpractice, conduct that falls below a standard of II! II! II! II! II! II! II! II! II! II! II! II! II! II! II! II! II!
II! care necessary to protect others from unreasonable risks of harm.
II! II! II! II! II! II! II! II! II!
II! Negligence /Malpractice - Correct Answers An act or an omission that breaches the duty of due care &
II! II! II! II! II! II! II! II! II! II! II! II! II! II! II! II! II! II! II! II! II!
II! results in or is responsible for a person's injuriesImproper, illegal, negligent professional activity or
II! II! II! II! II! II! II! II! II! II! II! II! II!
II! treatmentPractice beyond your scope of practice II! II! II! II! II!
II! Elements of Nursing Negligence - Correct Answers -Duty of due care established (measured by standard
II! II! II! II! II! II! II! II! II! II! II! II! II! II! II! II! II! II!
II! of care) II!
, -Performance breached the duty owed by falling below or deviating from the accepted standard of care II! II! II! II! II! II! II! II! II! II! II! II! II! II! II!
-The act was the proximate cause of the plaintiff's injury & it was foreseeable that it would cause an injury.
II! II! II! II! II! II! II! II! II! II! II! II! II! II! II! II! II! II! II!
- The consumer sustained injury or harm
II! II! II! II! II! II!
II! intentional torts - Correct Answers Harm caused by a deliberate action II! II! II! II! II! II! II! II! II! II! II! II! II! II!
-Assault: threats causing fear of being touched II! II! II! II! II! II!
-Battery: unwarranted or harmful physical contactFalse imprisonment
II! II! II! II! II! II!
II! three elements to prove liability for intentional tort - Correct Answers Willful, voluntary act
II! II! II! II! II! II! II! II! II! II! II! II! II! II! II! II! II!
Intention to bring about consequences or injury II! II! II! II! II! II!
Act was asubstantial factor in injury/consequences
II! II! II! II! II!
II! when does a crisis occur - Correct Answers when there is a perceived challenge or threat that
II! II! II! II! II! II! II! II! II! II! II! II! II! II! II! II! II! II! II! II!
II! overwhelms the capacity of the individual to cope effectively with the event II! II! II! II! II! II! II! II! II! II! II!
II! key points for a crisis - Correct Answers a crisis is a time limited event that triggers adaptive or non
II! II! II! II! II! II! II! II! II! II! II! II! II! II! II! II! II! II! II! II! II! II! II!
II! adaptive responses to maturational, situational, or traumatic experiences.
II! II! II! II! II! II! II! II!
- can be positive or negative
II! II! II! II! II!
II! crisis can be invoked by - Correct Answers many things including:
II! II! II! II! II! II! II! II! II! II! II! II! II! II!
- natural disasters, human-made disasters, interpersonal events, acute stress disorder, significantly,
II! II! II! II! II! II! II! II! II! II!
distress or social functioning is impaired, or PTSD like triggers
II! II! II! II! II! II! II! II! II! II!
II! phases of a crisis - Correct Answers Phase 1: Person confronted by conflict that threatens self-concept
II! II! II! II! II! II! II! II! II! II! II! II! II! II! II! II! II! II! II!
II! responds with increased anxiety. II! II! II!
Phase 2: If the usual defensive response fails and if threat persists, then anxiety escalates. Trial-and-error
II! II! II! II! II! II! II! II! II! II! II! II! II! II! II!
begins.
II! II!
Phase 3: If the trial-and-error attempts fail, then anxiety can escalate to severe and panic levels.
II! II! II! II! II! II! II! II! II! II! II! II! II! II! II! II!
