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Psychopharm Final Exam Questions And
Answers |Latest 2025 | Guaranteed Pass.
A 26-year-old patient with untreated ADHD has recently been arrested for possession of both
cocaine and marijuana. In individuals with comorbid substance abuse and ADHD, it is generally
advisable to treat ADHD first before addressing substance abuse.
a)
True
b)
False - Answer✔False
A 30-year-old man with juvenile-onset diabetes has begun experiencing throbbing pain,
particularly at night. In addition, he states that his body generally feels sensitive all over, so that
even the brush of his clothes against his skin can be uncomfortable. These symptoms, indicative
of diabetic peripheral neuropathy, may be caused by:A. Inflammation or damage in the
periphery without disturbance in central pain processingB. Central disturbance in pain
processing without damage in the peripheryC. Inflammation or damage in the periphery
combined with central disturbance in pain processing - Answer✔C - Correct. Chronic pain
syndromes may be peripheral, central, or both peripheral and central ("mixed") in origin. Over
time, diabetes can cause inflammation that damages peripheral nerves and thus leads to
painful physical symptoms. In addition, that damage may cause repetitive activation of
nociception, and such ongoing neuronal activity may induce central plasticity within the pain
pathway, with progressive and potentially irreversible molecular changes in pain processing
pathways eventually leading to progressive and potentially irreversible pain symptoms. Thus
diabetic peripheral neuropathy is a syndrome in which definite peripheral injury is combined
with central sensitization.
A 22-year-old woman with pain throughout her body, extreme fatigue, and poor sleep is
diagnosed with fibromyalgia. Her care provider considers prescribing pregabalin, which may
alleviate pain by:A. Binding to the closed conformation of voltage-sensitive sodium channelsB.
Binding to the open conformation of voltage-sensitive sodium channelsC. Binding to the closed
conformation of voltage-sensitive calcium channelsD. Binding to the open conformation of
voltage-sensitive calcium channels - Answer✔D - Correct. Pregabalin does, however, bind to the
alpha 2 delta subunit of voltage-sensitive calcium channels (VSCCs). In fact, pregabalin binds
1
, ©THESTAR 2024/2025 ALL RIGHTS RESERVED 3:09PM.
preferentially to the open conformation of these channels and thus may be particularly
effective in blocking channels that are the most active, with a "use-dependent" form of
inhibition.
A 24 yo man w/ depression achieves remission after 16 weeks. According to the neutrophilic
hypothesis of depression, what is the hypothesis of his BDNF expression before and after his
successful tx of depression. Please review the neutrophilic hypothesis of depression about
BDNF (Brain-derived neurotrophic factor) expression - Answer✔BDNF suppressed under stress.
Stress lowers 5HT levels and depletes NE and DA. .BDNF before antidepressant therapy is low
and increased after antidepressant therapy
Agonist cause ligand gated channel ions to - Answer✔open more frequently
A receptor with four transmembrane regions changes conformation as GABA binds. Which
system is this process describing? - Answer✔Ligand-gated ion channel
Pharmocokinetics definition is - Answer✔what the body does to drugs
Teratogens are - Answer✔substance or processes that interfere with normal prenatal
development
Drugs effects that theoretically enhances ligand-gated channels to open maximally and even
more frequently are referred as:.
no allosteric modulating effect
a negative allosteric modulating effect
a positive allosteric modulating effect
a neutral allosteric modulating effect - Answer✔a positive allosteric modulating effect
A receptor will stop responding to an agonist:
When the receptor becomes activated
When the receptor becomes sensitized
When the agonist stops binding to it
When the agonist continues to activate it - Answer✔When the agonist stops binding to it
A leading hypothesis of schizophrenia is:
d. Hyperfunctioning of AMPA receptors
Hypofunctioning NMDA receptors
Hyperfunctioning NMDA receptors
Hypofunctioning of AMPA receptors - Answer✔Hypofunctioning NMDA receptors
2
Psychopharm Final Exam Questions And
Answers |Latest 2025 | Guaranteed Pass.
A 26-year-old patient with untreated ADHD has recently been arrested for possession of both
cocaine and marijuana. In individuals with comorbid substance abuse and ADHD, it is generally
advisable to treat ADHD first before addressing substance abuse.
a)
True
b)
False - Answer✔False
A 30-year-old man with juvenile-onset diabetes has begun experiencing throbbing pain,
particularly at night. In addition, he states that his body generally feels sensitive all over, so that
even the brush of his clothes against his skin can be uncomfortable. These symptoms, indicative
of diabetic peripheral neuropathy, may be caused by:A. Inflammation or damage in the
periphery without disturbance in central pain processingB. Central disturbance in pain
processing without damage in the peripheryC. Inflammation or damage in the periphery
combined with central disturbance in pain processing - Answer✔C - Correct. Chronic pain
syndromes may be peripheral, central, or both peripheral and central ("mixed") in origin. Over
time, diabetes can cause inflammation that damages peripheral nerves and thus leads to
painful physical symptoms. In addition, that damage may cause repetitive activation of
nociception, and such ongoing neuronal activity may induce central plasticity within the pain
pathway, with progressive and potentially irreversible molecular changes in pain processing
pathways eventually leading to progressive and potentially irreversible pain symptoms. Thus
diabetic peripheral neuropathy is a syndrome in which definite peripheral injury is combined
with central sensitization.
A 22-year-old woman with pain throughout her body, extreme fatigue, and poor sleep is
diagnosed with fibromyalgia. Her care provider considers prescribing pregabalin, which may
alleviate pain by:A. Binding to the closed conformation of voltage-sensitive sodium channelsB.
Binding to the open conformation of voltage-sensitive sodium channelsC. Binding to the closed
conformation of voltage-sensitive calcium channelsD. Binding to the open conformation of
voltage-sensitive calcium channels - Answer✔D - Correct. Pregabalin does, however, bind to the
alpha 2 delta subunit of voltage-sensitive calcium channels (VSCCs). In fact, pregabalin binds
1
, ©THESTAR 2024/2025 ALL RIGHTS RESERVED 3:09PM.
preferentially to the open conformation of these channels and thus may be particularly
effective in blocking channels that are the most active, with a "use-dependent" form of
inhibition.
A 24 yo man w/ depression achieves remission after 16 weeks. According to the neutrophilic
hypothesis of depression, what is the hypothesis of his BDNF expression before and after his
successful tx of depression. Please review the neutrophilic hypothesis of depression about
BDNF (Brain-derived neurotrophic factor) expression - Answer✔BDNF suppressed under stress.
Stress lowers 5HT levels and depletes NE and DA. .BDNF before antidepressant therapy is low
and increased after antidepressant therapy
Agonist cause ligand gated channel ions to - Answer✔open more frequently
A receptor with four transmembrane regions changes conformation as GABA binds. Which
system is this process describing? - Answer✔Ligand-gated ion channel
Pharmocokinetics definition is - Answer✔what the body does to drugs
Teratogens are - Answer✔substance or processes that interfere with normal prenatal
development
Drugs effects that theoretically enhances ligand-gated channels to open maximally and even
more frequently are referred as:.
no allosteric modulating effect
a negative allosteric modulating effect
a positive allosteric modulating effect
a neutral allosteric modulating effect - Answer✔a positive allosteric modulating effect
A receptor will stop responding to an agonist:
When the receptor becomes activated
When the receptor becomes sensitized
When the agonist stops binding to it
When the agonist continues to activate it - Answer✔When the agonist stops binding to it
A leading hypothesis of schizophrenia is:
d. Hyperfunctioning of AMPA receptors
Hypofunctioning NMDA receptors
Hyperfunctioning NMDA receptors
Hypofunctioning of AMPA receptors - Answer✔Hypofunctioning NMDA receptors
2
