1
2025 HESI EVOLVE EXAM ACTUAL EXAM
QUESTIONS AND WELL ELABORATED ANSWERS
(100% VERIFIED ANSWERS) NEWEST EXAM 2025 |
GUARANTEED PASS A+
A client with asthma receives a prescription for high blood pressure during a
clinic visit. Which prescription should the nurse anticipate the client to receive
that is at least likely to exacerbate asthma?
A. Pindolol (Visken).
B. Carteolol (Ocupress).
C. Metoprolol tartrate (Lopressor).
D. Propranolol hydrochloride (Inderal). - (answer)Metoprolol Tartrate(
Lopressor)
The best antihypertensive agent for clients with asthma is metoprolol
(Lopressor) (C), a beta2 blocking agent which is also cardioselective and less
likely to cause bronchoconstriction.
-Pindolol (A) is a beta2 blocker that can cause bronchoconstriction and increase
asthmatic symptoms.
-Although carteolol (B) is a beta blocking agent and an effective
antihypertensive agent used in managing angina, it can increase a client's risk
for bronchoconstriction due to its nonselective beta blocker action.
-Propranolol (D) also blocks the beta2 receptors in the lungs, causing
bronchoconstriction, and is not indicated in clients with asthma and other
obstructive pulmonary disorders.
, 2
A male client who has been taking propranolol ( inderal) for 18 months tells the
nurse the healthcare provider discontinued the medication because his blood
pressure has been normal for the past three months. Which instruction should
the use provide? - (answer)Ask the health care provider about tapering the
drug dose over the next week.
Although the healthcare provider discontinued the propranolol, measures to
prevent rebound cardiac excitation, such as progressively reducing the dose
over one to two weeks (C), should be recommended to prevent rebound
tachycardia, hypertension, and ventricular dysrhythmias. Abrupt cessation (A
and B) of the beta-blocking agent may precipitate tachycardia and rebound
hypertension, so gradual weaning should be recommended.
A client who is taking clonidine ( Catapres, Duraclon) reports drowsiness.
Which additional assessment should the nurse make? - (answer)How long has
the client been taking the medication
Drowsiness can occur in the early weeks of treatment with clonidine and with
continued use becomes less intense, so the length of time the client has been
on the medication (A) provides information to direct additional instruction. (B,
C, and D) are not relevant.
The nurse is preparing to admister atropine, an anticholinergic, to a client who
is scheduled for a cholecystectomy. The client asks the nurse to explain th
reason for the prescribed medication. What response is best for the nurse to
provide? - (answer)Decrease the risk of bradycardia during surgery
Atropine may be prescribed preoperatively to increase the automaticity of the
sinoatrial node and prevent a dangerous reduction in heart rate (B) during
surgical anesthesia. (A, C and D) do not address the therapeutic action of
atropine use perioperatively.
, 3
An 80 year old client is given morphine sulphate for postoperative pain. Which
concomitant medication should the nurse question that poses a potential
development of urniary retention in this geriatric client. ? - (answer)Tricyclic
antidepressants
Drugs with anticholinergic properties, such as tricyclic antidepressants (C), can
exacerbate urinary retention associated with opioids in the older client.
Although tricyclic antidepressants and antihistamines with opioids can
exacerbate urinary retention, the concurrent use of (A and B) with opioids do
not. Nonsteroidal antiinflammatory agents (D) can increase the risk for
bleeding, but do not increase urinary retention with opioids (D).
The nurse obtains a heart rate of 92 and a blood pressure of 110/76 prior to
administering a scheduled dose of verapamil (Calan) for a client with atrial
flutter Which action should the nurse implement? - (answer)Admister the dose
as prescribed
Verapamil slows sinoatrial (SA) nodal automaticity, delays atrioventricular (AV)
nodal conduction, which slows the ventricular rate, and is used to treat atrial
flutter, so (A) should be implemented, based on the client's heart rate and
blood pressure. (B and C) are not indicated. (D) delays the administration of the
scheduled dose.
following an emergency Cesarean delivery the nurse encourages the new
mother to breastfed her newborn . the client asks why she should breastfeed
now. Which info should the nurse provide? - (answer)Stimulate contraction of
the uterus
, 4
When the infant suckles at the breast, oxytocin is released by the posterior
pituitary to stimulates the "letdown" reflex, which causes the release of
colostrum, and contracts the uterus (C) to prevent uterine hemorrhage. (A and
B) do not support the client's need in the immediate period after the
emergency delivery. Although maternal-newborn bonding (D) is facilitated by
early breastfeeding, the priority is uterine contraction stimulation.
The nurse identifies a clients needs and formulates th nursing problem of "
Imbalancee nutrition: Less than body requirements, related to mental
impairment and decreased intkae, as evidence by increasing confusion and
weight loss of more than 30 pounds over the last 6 months. " which short-term
goal is best for this client? - (answer)Eat 50% of six small meals each day by the
end of the week
Short-term goals should be realistic and attainable and should have a timeline
of 7 to 10 days before discharge. (A) meets those criteria. (B) is nurse-oriented.
(C) may be beyond the capabilities of a confused client. (D) is a long-term goal.
the nursie is caring for a client who is unable to void. The plan of care
establishes an objective for the client to ingest at least 1000 mL of fluid
between 7:00 am and 3:30pm. Which client response should the nurse
document that indicates a successful outcome? - (answer)Drinks 240 mL of
fluid five times during the shift.
The nurse should evaluate the client's outcome by observing the client's
performance of each expected behavior, so drinking 240 mL of fluid five or six
times during the shift (D) indicates a fluid intake of 1200 to 1440 mL, which
meets the objective of at least 1000 mL during the designated period. (A) uses
the term "adequate," which is not quantified. (B) is not the objective, which
establishes an intake of at least 1000 mL. (C) is not an evaluation of the specific
fluid intake.
2025 HESI EVOLVE EXAM ACTUAL EXAM
QUESTIONS AND WELL ELABORATED ANSWERS
(100% VERIFIED ANSWERS) NEWEST EXAM 2025 |
GUARANTEED PASS A+
A client with asthma receives a prescription for high blood pressure during a
clinic visit. Which prescription should the nurse anticipate the client to receive
that is at least likely to exacerbate asthma?
A. Pindolol (Visken).
B. Carteolol (Ocupress).
C. Metoprolol tartrate (Lopressor).
D. Propranolol hydrochloride (Inderal). - (answer)Metoprolol Tartrate(
Lopressor)
The best antihypertensive agent for clients with asthma is metoprolol
(Lopressor) (C), a beta2 blocking agent which is also cardioselective and less
likely to cause bronchoconstriction.
-Pindolol (A) is a beta2 blocker that can cause bronchoconstriction and increase
asthmatic symptoms.
-Although carteolol (B) is a beta blocking agent and an effective
antihypertensive agent used in managing angina, it can increase a client's risk
for bronchoconstriction due to its nonselective beta blocker action.
-Propranolol (D) also blocks the beta2 receptors in the lungs, causing
bronchoconstriction, and is not indicated in clients with asthma and other
obstructive pulmonary disorders.
, 2
A male client who has been taking propranolol ( inderal) for 18 months tells the
nurse the healthcare provider discontinued the medication because his blood
pressure has been normal for the past three months. Which instruction should
the use provide? - (answer)Ask the health care provider about tapering the
drug dose over the next week.
Although the healthcare provider discontinued the propranolol, measures to
prevent rebound cardiac excitation, such as progressively reducing the dose
over one to two weeks (C), should be recommended to prevent rebound
tachycardia, hypertension, and ventricular dysrhythmias. Abrupt cessation (A
and B) of the beta-blocking agent may precipitate tachycardia and rebound
hypertension, so gradual weaning should be recommended.
A client who is taking clonidine ( Catapres, Duraclon) reports drowsiness.
Which additional assessment should the nurse make? - (answer)How long has
the client been taking the medication
Drowsiness can occur in the early weeks of treatment with clonidine and with
continued use becomes less intense, so the length of time the client has been
on the medication (A) provides information to direct additional instruction. (B,
C, and D) are not relevant.
The nurse is preparing to admister atropine, an anticholinergic, to a client who
is scheduled for a cholecystectomy. The client asks the nurse to explain th
reason for the prescribed medication. What response is best for the nurse to
provide? - (answer)Decrease the risk of bradycardia during surgery
Atropine may be prescribed preoperatively to increase the automaticity of the
sinoatrial node and prevent a dangerous reduction in heart rate (B) during
surgical anesthesia. (A, C and D) do not address the therapeutic action of
atropine use perioperatively.
, 3
An 80 year old client is given morphine sulphate for postoperative pain. Which
concomitant medication should the nurse question that poses a potential
development of urniary retention in this geriatric client. ? - (answer)Tricyclic
antidepressants
Drugs with anticholinergic properties, such as tricyclic antidepressants (C), can
exacerbate urinary retention associated with opioids in the older client.
Although tricyclic antidepressants and antihistamines with opioids can
exacerbate urinary retention, the concurrent use of (A and B) with opioids do
not. Nonsteroidal antiinflammatory agents (D) can increase the risk for
bleeding, but do not increase urinary retention with opioids (D).
The nurse obtains a heart rate of 92 and a blood pressure of 110/76 prior to
administering a scheduled dose of verapamil (Calan) for a client with atrial
flutter Which action should the nurse implement? - (answer)Admister the dose
as prescribed
Verapamil slows sinoatrial (SA) nodal automaticity, delays atrioventricular (AV)
nodal conduction, which slows the ventricular rate, and is used to treat atrial
flutter, so (A) should be implemented, based on the client's heart rate and
blood pressure. (B and C) are not indicated. (D) delays the administration of the
scheduled dose.
following an emergency Cesarean delivery the nurse encourages the new
mother to breastfed her newborn . the client asks why she should breastfeed
now. Which info should the nurse provide? - (answer)Stimulate contraction of
the uterus
, 4
When the infant suckles at the breast, oxytocin is released by the posterior
pituitary to stimulates the "letdown" reflex, which causes the release of
colostrum, and contracts the uterus (C) to prevent uterine hemorrhage. (A and
B) do not support the client's need in the immediate period after the
emergency delivery. Although maternal-newborn bonding (D) is facilitated by
early breastfeeding, the priority is uterine contraction stimulation.
The nurse identifies a clients needs and formulates th nursing problem of "
Imbalancee nutrition: Less than body requirements, related to mental
impairment and decreased intkae, as evidence by increasing confusion and
weight loss of more than 30 pounds over the last 6 months. " which short-term
goal is best for this client? - (answer)Eat 50% of six small meals each day by the
end of the week
Short-term goals should be realistic and attainable and should have a timeline
of 7 to 10 days before discharge. (A) meets those criteria. (B) is nurse-oriented.
(C) may be beyond the capabilities of a confused client. (D) is a long-term goal.
the nursie is caring for a client who is unable to void. The plan of care
establishes an objective for the client to ingest at least 1000 mL of fluid
between 7:00 am and 3:30pm. Which client response should the nurse
document that indicates a successful outcome? - (answer)Drinks 240 mL of
fluid five times during the shift.
The nurse should evaluate the client's outcome by observing the client's
performance of each expected behavior, so drinking 240 mL of fluid five or six
times during the shift (D) indicates a fluid intake of 1200 to 1440 mL, which
meets the objective of at least 1000 mL during the designated period. (A) uses
the term "adequate," which is not quantified. (B) is not the objective, which
establishes an intake of at least 1000 mL. (C) is not an evaluation of the specific
fluid intake.
