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NCLEX-PN Exam 2025/2026 Questions With Completed & Verified Solutions.

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NCLEX-PN Exam 2025/2026 Questions With Completed & Verified Solutions.

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NCLEX-PN 3000 Questions

A 40-year-old client is admitted to the hospital for alcohol abuse for the third time in the past 9
months. The health care team recommends rehabilitative treatment for this client. Why was this
treatment recommended?




1. It's the only option for controlling alcohol consumption.




2. It helps the client identify a new group of friends.




3. It helps the client understand the effects of alcohol on his body.




4. It helps the client identify the relationship between his problems and alcohol consumption. -
ANS - Correct Answer: 4

RATIONALES: The purpose of rehabilitative treatment in alcoholism is to help the client identify
the relationship between his problems and his alcohol consumption. Rehabilitative treatment
promotes abstinence, not limiting or controlling consumption. It isn't intended to help the client
identify a new group of friends or understand the effects of alcohol on his body.
\A 42-year-old client comes to the clinic and is diagnosed with shingles. Which findings confirm
this diagnosis?

Select all that apply:


1. Severe, deep pain around the thorax




2. Red, nodular skin lesions around the thorax

,3. Fever




4. Malaise




5. Diarrhea - ANS - Correct Answer: 1,2,3,4

RATIONALES: Shingles, also called herpes zoster, is an acute unilateral and segmental
inflammation of the dorsal root ganglia. It's caused by infection with the herpes virus
varicella-zoster, the same virus that causes chickenpox. It commonly causes severe, deep pain
along a peripheral nerve on the trunk of the body and red, nodular skin lesions. Fever and
malaise typically accompany these findings. Diarrhea doesn't commonly occur with shingles.
\A 43-year-old man was transferring a load of firewood from his front driveway to his backyard
woodpile at 10 a.m. when he experienced a heaviness in his chest and dyspnea. He stopped
working and rested, and the pain subsided. At noon, the pain returned. At 1:30 p.m., his wife
took him to the emergency department. Around 2 p.m., the emergency department physician
diagnoses an anterior myocardial infarction (MI). The nurse should anticipate which immediate
order by the physician?




1. Lidocaine administration




2. Cardiac stress test




3. Serial liver enzyme testing




4. Tissue plasminogen activator (tPA) - ANS - Correct Answer: 4

,RATIONALES: If 6 hours or less have passed since the onset of symptoms related to MI,
thrombolytic therapy is indicated. (The client's chest pain began 4 hours before diagnosis.) The
preferred choice is tPA. The client doesn't exhibit symptoms that indicate the use of lidocaine.
Stress testing shouldn't be performed during the acute phase of an MI, but it may be ordered
before discharge. Serial cardiac biomarkers, not serial liver enzymes, would be ordered for this
client.
\A 76-year-old client is admitted to a long-term care facility with Alzheimer's-type dementia. The
client has been wearing the same dirty clothes for several days. The nurse contacts the family
and asks them to bring in clean clothing. Which intervention would bestprevent further
regression in the client's personal hygiene?




1. Encouraging the client to perform as much self-care as possible




2. Making the client assume responsibility for physical care




3. Assigning a staff member to take over the client's physical care




4. Accepting the client's desire to go without bathing - ANS - Correct Answer: 1

RATIONALES: Clients with Alzheimer's-type dementia tend to fluctuate in their capabilities.
Encouraging self-care to the extent possible helps increase the client's orientation and promotes
a trusting relationship with the nurse. Making the client assume responsibility for physical care is
unreasonable. Assigning a staff member to take over the client's physical care restricts the
client's independence. Accepting the client's desire to go without bathing promotes poor
hygiene.
\A client asks the nurse about the rhythm (calendar-basal body temperature) method of family
planning. The nurse explains that this method involves:




1. chemical barriers that act as spermicidal agents.

, 2. hormones that prevent ovulation.




3. mechanical barriers that prevent sperm from reaching the cervix.




4. determination of the fertile period to identify safe times for sexual intercourse. - ANS - Correct
Answer: 4

RATIONALES: The rhythm method of family planning combines basal body temperature
measurement with analysis of cervical mucus changes to determine the fertile period. This
method helps identify safe and unsafe periods for sexual intercourse. A natural family planning
method, the rhythm method doesn't involve use of chemical barriers, hormones, or mechanical
barriers.
\A client asks the nurse, "Do you think I should leave my husband?" The nurse responds, "You
aren't sure if you should leave your husband?" The nurse is using which therapeutic technique?




1. Restating




2. Reframing




3. Reflecting




4. Offering a general lead - ANS - Correct Answer: 3

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