Sports Medicine Exam Questions and
Answers
1. A 16-year-old football player presents to clinic the same day after a fall on an
outstretched hand in practice. Tenderness is noted in the area of the right snuffbox.
Imaging is negative for fracture. What is the most appropriate management at this time?
A. Ice, ACE wrap, and rest with return to play as tolerated
B. Short arm thumb spica splint with follow-up in 1 week in order to reimage
C. Short arm thumb spica cast with follow-up in 4 weeks
D. Short arm thumb spica splint with follow-up in 4 weeks - correct answer-1. B
(Chapter 7)
2. Regarding the structure of normal tendon, which is true?
A. The tendon's vascular and lymphatic supply is contained in the loose connective
tissue sheath of the endotenon
B. Collagen type III makes up approximately 80% of the dry weight of tendon
C. Water accounts for approximately 70% of tendon mass
D. The osseotendinous junction is the weakest part of the muscle/tendon unit
E. The majority of the blood flow to the tendon midportion arises from vessels
originating at the myotendinous junction - correct answer-2. C (Chapter 14)
3. A 32-year-old recreational basketball player comes to your office with a chief
complaint of right posterolateral knee pain. He is unclear about the exact mechanism,
but he believes he may have twisted and hyperextended his knee during a game 3 days
ago. During your physical examination, you note a knee effusion and guarding to
passive range of motion. You decide to perform a dial test, and you note 15° more of
tibial external rotation of the right knee compared to the left when at 30° of flexion but
symmetric external rotation when the knee is held at 90° of flexion. This physical exam
finding suggests which pathology or combination of pathologies?
A. Posterior cruciate ligament (PCL) injury only
B. Posterolateral corner (PLC) injury only
C. Neither PCL nor PLC injury
D. Both PCL and PLC injury - correct answer-3. B (Chapter 25)
4. This fracture pattern involves only compression failure of cortex/periosteum at the
metaphyseal/diaphyseal junction:
A. Plastic deformation
B. Physeal fracture
C. Complete fracture
,D. Buckle fracture
E. Greenstick fracture - correct answer-4. D (Chapter 28)
5. After sustaining trauma to the anterior, lateral shoulder, a collegiate rugby player
presents with chest pain, shortness of breath, right arm paresthesias, and cramping. He
holds his head tilted to the right side and has pain near the right sternal border. His
neurovascular exam is normal. The best management for this patient is:
A. Assume this is an anterior sternoclavicular joint dislocation; hold from play and follow
up with orthopedics after completion of the game
B. Assume this is a posterior sternoclavicular joint dislocation; hold from play and follow
up with orthopedics after completion of the game
C. Assume this is a posterior sternoclavicular joint dislocation; perform emergent
reduction on the sideline
D. Assume this is a posterior sternoclavicular joint dislocation; transfer to the nearest
emergency department for intraoperative reduction - correct answer-5. D (Chapter 32)
6. A 27-year-old female presents to your office for evaluation of leg pain. She reports
pain predominantly over the anteromedial portion of her leg from about mid-tibia
extending slightly distally. She began training for a half marathon 6 weeks ago. Her pain
is most severe when she starts running but eases once she warms up. Her most likely
diagnosis is?
A. Compartment syndrome
B. Medial tibial stress syndrome
C. Tibial stress fracture
D. Popliteal artery entrapment - correct answer-6. B (Chapter 26)
7. The two most important factors in the treatment of exertional heat stroke in a
preseason football athlete are:
A. Early core temperature assessment and early transportation to emergency facility
B. Initiation of rapid cooling measures and intravenous fluid administration
C. Early core temperature assessment and initiation of rapid cooling measures
D. Appropriate off-season conditioning program and maintaining body mass index within
normal limits - correct answer-7. C (Chapter 31)
8. Which of the following is NOT a feature of periodization?
A. Microcycles are commonly 1 week
B. Increased training volume leading up to competition
C. Transitions from general to specific training
D. Decreases risk of overtraining
E. Linear periodization is designed for sports with a small number of in-season
competitions and a well-defined off-season - correct answer-8. B (Chapter 9)
,9. A 16-year-old male wrestler presents to the training room for evaluation of auricular
swelling, pain, and erythema that began the previous evening during a wrestling match.
The swelling and pain have progressively worsened. What is your treatment plan?
A. Ice, nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs), and gentle compression for 10 to
14 days
B. Referral to dermatology for biopsy of suspected cancerous lesion
C. Referral to ear, nose, and throat (ENT) for possible excision and grafting
D. Needle aspiration of auricular hematoma and external compression for 7 to 10 days
E. Cephalexin 500 mg 4 times a day for 7 days - correct answer-9. D (Chapter 37)
10. Which one of these is NOT a requirement of the team physician?
A. Possess knowledge of on-field emergency care at sporting events
B. Be an MD or DO, with an unrestricted license
C. Be advanced cardiovascular life support (ACLS) certified
D. Have a fundamental knowledge of musculoskeletal injuries - correct answer-10. C
(Chapter 2)
11. A 35-year-old male presents to the clinic with right knee pain 5 days after running a
10K race. The right knee is swollen and warm to the touch. He denies any fevers, chills,
or other systemic symptoms. He does mention he was with friends over the weekend at
a college reunion party. Indomethacin has provided great relief for a similar episode in
the past. You aspirate the knee and send the fluid to the lab for analysis. What would
you expect to find on synovial fluid analysis and what is the appropriate treatment at this
time?
A. Synovial fluid: Cloudy appearance with 5,000 white blood cells (WBCs) per mm3.
Treatment: initiation of allopurinol
B. Synovial fluid: Opaque appearance with 100,000 WBCs per mm3. Treatment:
initiation of indomethacin
C. Synovial fluid: Cloudy appearance with 5,000 WBCs per mm3. Treatment: initiation
of indomethacin
D. Synovial fluid: Cloudy appearance with 100,000 WBCs per mm3. Treatme - correct
answer-11. C (Chapter 7)
12. Tendons elongate under load, with properties of elongation determined by the
stress-strain curve. Which statement about stress and strain is correct?
A. The linear region of the stress-strain curve represents the area in which maximal
stress is required to produce additional tendon elongation
B. The elastic limit occurs at 10% strain, after which there is rupture of the tendon
C. Tendon crimp is straightened at 5% tendon strain
D. The linear region of the stress-strain curve represents the area where the cross-links
between tendon fibrils are separated during application of stress - correct answer-12. A
(Chapter 14)
, 13. A 23-year-old female runner presents to your clinic with diffuse right anterior knee
pain. Her symptoms worsen at the end of a run and are associated with aching the
following day. The pain is worse with going up/down stairs. Her physical exam of the
right knee is notable for no effusion, tenderness to palpation over the medial patellar
facet, negative patellar apprehension, and contralateral pelvic drop with right genu
valgum in single-leg stance. Quadriceps testing reveals 5-/5 strength on the right, with
some guarding noted. During side-lying examination, right gluteus medius strength is 4-
/5. She asked a friend about this problem, who told her that she should strengthen her
quadriceps. How would you counsel her?
A. Her friend was correct—Quadriceps strengthening should be the main component of
her rehabilitation protocol
B. Her friend was incorrect—Quadriceps strengthening is not important for her rehabilita
- correct answer-13. C (Chapter 25)
14. This epiphyseal fracture pattern involves a fracture through the epiphysis and into
the physis:
A. Salter-Harris I
B. Salter-Harris II
C. Salter-Harris III
D. Salter-Harris IV
E. Salter-Harris V - correct answer-14. C (Chapter 28)
15. All of the following are energy systems except
A. Aerobic (oxidative)
B. Anaerobic (glycolytic)
C. Mitochondrial
D. ATP-phosphocreatine - correct answer-15. C (Chapter 3)
16. Which of the following is NOT the correct listing of anatomical structures for the
associated fascial compartment?
A. Anterior compartment: extensor hallucis longus, extensor digitorum longus, peroneus
tertius, anterior tibialis
B. Lateral compartment: peroneus longus, peroneus brevis, superficial peroneal nerve
C. Deep posterior compartment: flexor hallucis longus, flexor digitorum longus, posterior
tibialis, deep peroneal nerve
D. Superficial posterior compartment: gastrocnemius, soleus - correct answer-16. C
(Chapter 26)
17. An 18-year-old weightlifter presents to your training room complaining of a red eye
after weightlifting. He is not complaining of pain, visual disturbance, photophobia,
tearing, or blepharospasm. Physical examination is negative except for bright redness
Answers
1. A 16-year-old football player presents to clinic the same day after a fall on an
outstretched hand in practice. Tenderness is noted in the area of the right snuffbox.
Imaging is negative for fracture. What is the most appropriate management at this time?
A. Ice, ACE wrap, and rest with return to play as tolerated
B. Short arm thumb spica splint with follow-up in 1 week in order to reimage
C. Short arm thumb spica cast with follow-up in 4 weeks
D. Short arm thumb spica splint with follow-up in 4 weeks - correct answer-1. B
(Chapter 7)
2. Regarding the structure of normal tendon, which is true?
A. The tendon's vascular and lymphatic supply is contained in the loose connective
tissue sheath of the endotenon
B. Collagen type III makes up approximately 80% of the dry weight of tendon
C. Water accounts for approximately 70% of tendon mass
D. The osseotendinous junction is the weakest part of the muscle/tendon unit
E. The majority of the blood flow to the tendon midportion arises from vessels
originating at the myotendinous junction - correct answer-2. C (Chapter 14)
3. A 32-year-old recreational basketball player comes to your office with a chief
complaint of right posterolateral knee pain. He is unclear about the exact mechanism,
but he believes he may have twisted and hyperextended his knee during a game 3 days
ago. During your physical examination, you note a knee effusion and guarding to
passive range of motion. You decide to perform a dial test, and you note 15° more of
tibial external rotation of the right knee compared to the left when at 30° of flexion but
symmetric external rotation when the knee is held at 90° of flexion. This physical exam
finding suggests which pathology or combination of pathologies?
A. Posterior cruciate ligament (PCL) injury only
B. Posterolateral corner (PLC) injury only
C. Neither PCL nor PLC injury
D. Both PCL and PLC injury - correct answer-3. B (Chapter 25)
4. This fracture pattern involves only compression failure of cortex/periosteum at the
metaphyseal/diaphyseal junction:
A. Plastic deformation
B. Physeal fracture
C. Complete fracture
,D. Buckle fracture
E. Greenstick fracture - correct answer-4. D (Chapter 28)
5. After sustaining trauma to the anterior, lateral shoulder, a collegiate rugby player
presents with chest pain, shortness of breath, right arm paresthesias, and cramping. He
holds his head tilted to the right side and has pain near the right sternal border. His
neurovascular exam is normal. The best management for this patient is:
A. Assume this is an anterior sternoclavicular joint dislocation; hold from play and follow
up with orthopedics after completion of the game
B. Assume this is a posterior sternoclavicular joint dislocation; hold from play and follow
up with orthopedics after completion of the game
C. Assume this is a posterior sternoclavicular joint dislocation; perform emergent
reduction on the sideline
D. Assume this is a posterior sternoclavicular joint dislocation; transfer to the nearest
emergency department for intraoperative reduction - correct answer-5. D (Chapter 32)
6. A 27-year-old female presents to your office for evaluation of leg pain. She reports
pain predominantly over the anteromedial portion of her leg from about mid-tibia
extending slightly distally. She began training for a half marathon 6 weeks ago. Her pain
is most severe when she starts running but eases once she warms up. Her most likely
diagnosis is?
A. Compartment syndrome
B. Medial tibial stress syndrome
C. Tibial stress fracture
D. Popliteal artery entrapment - correct answer-6. B (Chapter 26)
7. The two most important factors in the treatment of exertional heat stroke in a
preseason football athlete are:
A. Early core temperature assessment and early transportation to emergency facility
B. Initiation of rapid cooling measures and intravenous fluid administration
C. Early core temperature assessment and initiation of rapid cooling measures
D. Appropriate off-season conditioning program and maintaining body mass index within
normal limits - correct answer-7. C (Chapter 31)
8. Which of the following is NOT a feature of periodization?
A. Microcycles are commonly 1 week
B. Increased training volume leading up to competition
C. Transitions from general to specific training
D. Decreases risk of overtraining
E. Linear periodization is designed for sports with a small number of in-season
competitions and a well-defined off-season - correct answer-8. B (Chapter 9)
,9. A 16-year-old male wrestler presents to the training room for evaluation of auricular
swelling, pain, and erythema that began the previous evening during a wrestling match.
The swelling and pain have progressively worsened. What is your treatment plan?
A. Ice, nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs), and gentle compression for 10 to
14 days
B. Referral to dermatology for biopsy of suspected cancerous lesion
C. Referral to ear, nose, and throat (ENT) for possible excision and grafting
D. Needle aspiration of auricular hematoma and external compression for 7 to 10 days
E. Cephalexin 500 mg 4 times a day for 7 days - correct answer-9. D (Chapter 37)
10. Which one of these is NOT a requirement of the team physician?
A. Possess knowledge of on-field emergency care at sporting events
B. Be an MD or DO, with an unrestricted license
C. Be advanced cardiovascular life support (ACLS) certified
D. Have a fundamental knowledge of musculoskeletal injuries - correct answer-10. C
(Chapter 2)
11. A 35-year-old male presents to the clinic with right knee pain 5 days after running a
10K race. The right knee is swollen and warm to the touch. He denies any fevers, chills,
or other systemic symptoms. He does mention he was with friends over the weekend at
a college reunion party. Indomethacin has provided great relief for a similar episode in
the past. You aspirate the knee and send the fluid to the lab for analysis. What would
you expect to find on synovial fluid analysis and what is the appropriate treatment at this
time?
A. Synovial fluid: Cloudy appearance with 5,000 white blood cells (WBCs) per mm3.
Treatment: initiation of allopurinol
B. Synovial fluid: Opaque appearance with 100,000 WBCs per mm3. Treatment:
initiation of indomethacin
C. Synovial fluid: Cloudy appearance with 5,000 WBCs per mm3. Treatment: initiation
of indomethacin
D. Synovial fluid: Cloudy appearance with 100,000 WBCs per mm3. Treatme - correct
answer-11. C (Chapter 7)
12. Tendons elongate under load, with properties of elongation determined by the
stress-strain curve. Which statement about stress and strain is correct?
A. The linear region of the stress-strain curve represents the area in which maximal
stress is required to produce additional tendon elongation
B. The elastic limit occurs at 10% strain, after which there is rupture of the tendon
C. Tendon crimp is straightened at 5% tendon strain
D. The linear region of the stress-strain curve represents the area where the cross-links
between tendon fibrils are separated during application of stress - correct answer-12. A
(Chapter 14)
, 13. A 23-year-old female runner presents to your clinic with diffuse right anterior knee
pain. Her symptoms worsen at the end of a run and are associated with aching the
following day. The pain is worse with going up/down stairs. Her physical exam of the
right knee is notable for no effusion, tenderness to palpation over the medial patellar
facet, negative patellar apprehension, and contralateral pelvic drop with right genu
valgum in single-leg stance. Quadriceps testing reveals 5-/5 strength on the right, with
some guarding noted. During side-lying examination, right gluteus medius strength is 4-
/5. She asked a friend about this problem, who told her that she should strengthen her
quadriceps. How would you counsel her?
A. Her friend was correct—Quadriceps strengthening should be the main component of
her rehabilitation protocol
B. Her friend was incorrect—Quadriceps strengthening is not important for her rehabilita
- correct answer-13. C (Chapter 25)
14. This epiphyseal fracture pattern involves a fracture through the epiphysis and into
the physis:
A. Salter-Harris I
B. Salter-Harris II
C. Salter-Harris III
D. Salter-Harris IV
E. Salter-Harris V - correct answer-14. C (Chapter 28)
15. All of the following are energy systems except
A. Aerobic (oxidative)
B. Anaerobic (glycolytic)
C. Mitochondrial
D. ATP-phosphocreatine - correct answer-15. C (Chapter 3)
16. Which of the following is NOT the correct listing of anatomical structures for the
associated fascial compartment?
A. Anterior compartment: extensor hallucis longus, extensor digitorum longus, peroneus
tertius, anterior tibialis
B. Lateral compartment: peroneus longus, peroneus brevis, superficial peroneal nerve
C. Deep posterior compartment: flexor hallucis longus, flexor digitorum longus, posterior
tibialis, deep peroneal nerve
D. Superficial posterior compartment: gastrocnemius, soleus - correct answer-16. C
(Chapter 26)
17. An 18-year-old weightlifter presents to your training room complaining of a red eye
after weightlifting. He is not complaining of pain, visual disturbance, photophobia,
tearing, or blepharospasm. Physical examination is negative except for bright redness
