WHNP NU 646
Primary Care for Women
LATEST FINALS REVIEW
Q&S
©2024/2025
,1. A 45-year-old woman presents with a history of heavy
menstrual bleeding and pelvic pain. Ultrasound reveals multiple
uterine fibroids. Which of the following is the most appropriate
initial management option?
- A) Endometrial ablation
- B) Myomectomy
- C) Hysterectomy
- D) GnRH agonists
Correct Answer: D) GnRH agonists
- Rationale : GnRH agonists can help shrink fibroids and
manage symptoms as a temporary measure, particularly when
fertility preservation is desired or prior to surgical intervention.
2. A 32-year-old woman presents with dysuria, increased urinary
frequency, and urgency. Which of the following initial diagnostic
tests should be performed to confirm a urinary tract infection?
- A) Kidney ultrasound
- B) Urine dipstick test
- C) Serum creatinine test
©2024/2025
, - D) Bladder biopsy
Correct Answer: B) Urine dipstick test
- Rationale : A urine dipstick test is a quick and efficient
initial diagnostic tool for identifying urinary tract infections by
detecting leukocyte esterase and nitrites.
3. Which of the following risk factors is most strongly
associated with the development of cervical cancer?
- A) Obesity
- B) Human papillomavirus (HPV) infection
- C) Family history of breast cancer
- D) Prolonged use of hormonal contraceptives
Correct Answer: B) Human papillomavirus (HPV) infection
- Rationale : Persistent infection with high-risk HPV types is
the most significant risk factor for cervical cancer development.
Fill-in-the-Blank Questions
4. _______ is the preferred screening method for osteoporosis in
women aged 65 and older.
©2024/2025
Primary Care for Women
LATEST FINALS REVIEW
Q&S
©2024/2025
,1. A 45-year-old woman presents with a history of heavy
menstrual bleeding and pelvic pain. Ultrasound reveals multiple
uterine fibroids. Which of the following is the most appropriate
initial management option?
- A) Endometrial ablation
- B) Myomectomy
- C) Hysterectomy
- D) GnRH agonists
Correct Answer: D) GnRH agonists
- Rationale : GnRH agonists can help shrink fibroids and
manage symptoms as a temporary measure, particularly when
fertility preservation is desired or prior to surgical intervention.
2. A 32-year-old woman presents with dysuria, increased urinary
frequency, and urgency. Which of the following initial diagnostic
tests should be performed to confirm a urinary tract infection?
- A) Kidney ultrasound
- B) Urine dipstick test
- C) Serum creatinine test
©2024/2025
, - D) Bladder biopsy
Correct Answer: B) Urine dipstick test
- Rationale : A urine dipstick test is a quick and efficient
initial diagnostic tool for identifying urinary tract infections by
detecting leukocyte esterase and nitrites.
3. Which of the following risk factors is most strongly
associated with the development of cervical cancer?
- A) Obesity
- B) Human papillomavirus (HPV) infection
- C) Family history of breast cancer
- D) Prolonged use of hormonal contraceptives
Correct Answer: B) Human papillomavirus (HPV) infection
- Rationale : Persistent infection with high-risk HPV types is
the most significant risk factor for cervical cancer development.
Fill-in-the-Blank Questions
4. _______ is the preferred screening method for osteoporosis in
women aged 65 and older.
©2024/2025
