CompTIA CySA+ (CS0-003) Practice Exam #1 Questions
and Answers.
Which of the following is a technique used in Secure Disposal?
Zero-fill
Clearing
Degaussing
Erasing - Correct Answer Degaussing
Secure Disposal involves the physical destruction of media. This can be done by
mechanical shredding, incineration, or degaussing. Degaussing, should be used for
media containing top secret or highly confidential information. Clearing data prevents data
from being retrieved without the use of state of the art laboratory techniques. Clearing
often involves overwriting data one or more times with repetitive or randomized data. It is
not part of Secure Disposal because the media isn't destroyed. Zero-fill overwrites the
media with bits to eliminate information. It allows the media to be reused. It doesn't
destroy the media, so it isn't part of Secure Disposal.
Which of the following is a characteristic of the Deep Web?
Contains information not indexed by standard search engines
Accessible through standard browsers
Only includes encrypted data
Predominantly used for illegal activities - Correct Answer Contains information not
indexed by standard search engines
The Deep Web contains information that is not indexed by standard search engines,
making it invisible to conventional searches. The Deep Web does not only include
encrypted data. It includes all data not indexed by search engines, whether encrypted or
not. The Deep Web is not typically accessible through standard browsers. It requires
specific software (like Tor) for access. While some illegal activities do occur on the Deep
Web, it is also used for many legitimate purposes.
,An organization's security team has recently discovered several vulnerabilities within its
systems. Why is it crucial for these vulnerabilities to be thoroughly reported and
communicated within the organization?
It ensures that the organization maintains compliance with required security standards
and protocols
It eliminates the need for regular system audits
It guarantees that the organization will not experience a data breach
It reduces the need for employee cybersecurity training - Correct Answer It ensures that
the organization maintains compliance with required security standards and protocols
Detailed reporting and communication about vulnerabilities help the organization remain
in line with required compliance standards by demonstrating proactive risk management.
Various regulations mandate vulnerability management reporting, and these
requirements may vary based on factors such as organization location, industry, and size.
Common regulations include the Payment Card Industry Data Security Standard (PCI
DSS), which mandates reporting vulnerabilities to the PCI Security Standards Council.
The Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act (HIPAA) requires healthcare
organizations to report security breaches to the Department of Health and Human
Services. Additionally, the Sarbanes-Oxley Act (SOX) mandates public companies to
report vulnerabilities to the Securities and Exchange Commission, while the National
Institute of Standards and Technology (NIST) Special Publication 800-53 stipulates
reporting vulnerabilities to the appropriate authorities. Organizations should consult their
legal team for guidance on applicable regulations. Employee training remains essential as
human error is a common source of security risks, independent of specific system
vulnerabilities. While effective vulnerability management reduces the risk of data
breaches, it cannot completely guarantee prevention due to the evolving nature of cyber
threats. Regular audits are still necessary as they provide an ongoing review of the
organization's security posture, beyond identified vulnerabilities.
What is the primary goal of the OWASP Testing Guide?
Understanding the relationships between the elements of a cyber attack
Providing a knowledge base of tactics, techniques, and procedures used by attackers
,Providing a framework for web application security testing
Describing the linear progression of a cyber attack - Correct Answer Providing a
framework for web application security testing
The OWASP Testing Guide provides a comprehensive framework for testing the security
of web applications. This is the main focus of the Cyber Kill Chain, not the OWASP
Testing Guide. This is a primary focus of the Diamond Model of Intrusion Analysis, not the
OWASP Testing Guide. This is a primary purpose of the MITRE ATT&CK framework, not
the OWASP Testing Guide.
As part of your organization's proactive threat hunting, you're considering gathering threat
intelligence from the deep web and dark web. What could be a significant benefit of this
approach?
Discovering potential threats before they impact your organization
Avoiding the need for other security measures
Eliminating all cyber threats
Increasing the organization's web presence - Correct Answer Discovering potential
threats before they impact your organization
Gathering threat intelligence from the deep web and dark web can help your organization
identify emerging threats or planned attacks before they affect your network. While
gathering intelligence can help identify and mitigate threats, it does not guarantee the
elimination of all cyber threats. Gathering threat intelligence is a part of a broader security
strategy and should be used in conjunction with other security measures, not in lieu of
them. Gathering threat intelligence from the deep web and dark web is not related to
increasing an organization's web presence; it's about identifying potential cyber threats.
Which tool should a malware analyst utilize to track the registry's changes and the file
system while running a suspicious executable on a Windows system?
DiskMon
Autoruns
Process Monitor
, ProcDump - Correct Answer Process Monitor
Process Monitor is an advanced monitoring tool for Windows that shows real-time file
system, Registry, and process/thread activity. Autoruns shows you what programs are
configured to run during system bootup or login. ProcDump is a command-line utility
whose primary purpose is monitoring an application for CPU spikes and generating crash
dumps during a spike that an administrator or developer can use to determine the cause
of the spike. DiskMon is an application that logs and displays all hard disk activity on a
Windows system. This question may seem beyond the scope of the exam. Still, the
objectives allow for "other examples of technologies, processes, or tasks about each
objective may also be included on the exam although not listed or covered" in the
objectives' bulletized lists. The exam tests the equivalent of 4 years of hands-on
experience in a technical cybersecurity job role. The content examples listed in the
objectives are meant to clarify the test objectives and should not be construed as a
comprehensive listing of this examination's content. Therefore, questions like this are fair
game on test day. That said, your goal isn't to score 100% on the exam; it is to pass it.
Don't let questions like this throw you off on test day. If you aren't sure, take your best
guess and move on!
Which of the following is NOT a valid reason to conduct reverse engineering?
To commit industrial espionage
To allow an attacker to spot vulnerabilities in an executable
To allow the software developer to spot flaws in their source code
To determine how a piece of malware operates - Correct Answer To allow the software
developer to spot flaws in their source code
If a software developer has a copy of their source code, there is no need to reverse
engineer it since they can directly examine the code. Doing this is known as static code
analysis, not reverse engineering. Reverse engineering is the process of analyzing a
system's or application's structure to reveal more about how it functions. In malware,
examining the code that implements its functionality can provide you with information as
to how the malware propagates and what its primary directives are. Reverse engineering
is also used to conduct industrial espionage since it can allow a company to figure out how
a competitor's application works and develop its own version. An attacker might use
reverse engineering of an application or executable to identify a flaw or vulnerability in its
operation and then exploit that flaw as part of their attack.
and Answers.
Which of the following is a technique used in Secure Disposal?
Zero-fill
Clearing
Degaussing
Erasing - Correct Answer Degaussing
Secure Disposal involves the physical destruction of media. This can be done by
mechanical shredding, incineration, or degaussing. Degaussing, should be used for
media containing top secret or highly confidential information. Clearing data prevents data
from being retrieved without the use of state of the art laboratory techniques. Clearing
often involves overwriting data one or more times with repetitive or randomized data. It is
not part of Secure Disposal because the media isn't destroyed. Zero-fill overwrites the
media with bits to eliminate information. It allows the media to be reused. It doesn't
destroy the media, so it isn't part of Secure Disposal.
Which of the following is a characteristic of the Deep Web?
Contains information not indexed by standard search engines
Accessible through standard browsers
Only includes encrypted data
Predominantly used for illegal activities - Correct Answer Contains information not
indexed by standard search engines
The Deep Web contains information that is not indexed by standard search engines,
making it invisible to conventional searches. The Deep Web does not only include
encrypted data. It includes all data not indexed by search engines, whether encrypted or
not. The Deep Web is not typically accessible through standard browsers. It requires
specific software (like Tor) for access. While some illegal activities do occur on the Deep
Web, it is also used for many legitimate purposes.
,An organization's security team has recently discovered several vulnerabilities within its
systems. Why is it crucial for these vulnerabilities to be thoroughly reported and
communicated within the organization?
It ensures that the organization maintains compliance with required security standards
and protocols
It eliminates the need for regular system audits
It guarantees that the organization will not experience a data breach
It reduces the need for employee cybersecurity training - Correct Answer It ensures that
the organization maintains compliance with required security standards and protocols
Detailed reporting and communication about vulnerabilities help the organization remain
in line with required compliance standards by demonstrating proactive risk management.
Various regulations mandate vulnerability management reporting, and these
requirements may vary based on factors such as organization location, industry, and size.
Common regulations include the Payment Card Industry Data Security Standard (PCI
DSS), which mandates reporting vulnerabilities to the PCI Security Standards Council.
The Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act (HIPAA) requires healthcare
organizations to report security breaches to the Department of Health and Human
Services. Additionally, the Sarbanes-Oxley Act (SOX) mandates public companies to
report vulnerabilities to the Securities and Exchange Commission, while the National
Institute of Standards and Technology (NIST) Special Publication 800-53 stipulates
reporting vulnerabilities to the appropriate authorities. Organizations should consult their
legal team for guidance on applicable regulations. Employee training remains essential as
human error is a common source of security risks, independent of specific system
vulnerabilities. While effective vulnerability management reduces the risk of data
breaches, it cannot completely guarantee prevention due to the evolving nature of cyber
threats. Regular audits are still necessary as they provide an ongoing review of the
organization's security posture, beyond identified vulnerabilities.
What is the primary goal of the OWASP Testing Guide?
Understanding the relationships between the elements of a cyber attack
Providing a knowledge base of tactics, techniques, and procedures used by attackers
,Providing a framework for web application security testing
Describing the linear progression of a cyber attack - Correct Answer Providing a
framework for web application security testing
The OWASP Testing Guide provides a comprehensive framework for testing the security
of web applications. This is the main focus of the Cyber Kill Chain, not the OWASP
Testing Guide. This is a primary focus of the Diamond Model of Intrusion Analysis, not the
OWASP Testing Guide. This is a primary purpose of the MITRE ATT&CK framework, not
the OWASP Testing Guide.
As part of your organization's proactive threat hunting, you're considering gathering threat
intelligence from the deep web and dark web. What could be a significant benefit of this
approach?
Discovering potential threats before they impact your organization
Avoiding the need for other security measures
Eliminating all cyber threats
Increasing the organization's web presence - Correct Answer Discovering potential
threats before they impact your organization
Gathering threat intelligence from the deep web and dark web can help your organization
identify emerging threats or planned attacks before they affect your network. While
gathering intelligence can help identify and mitigate threats, it does not guarantee the
elimination of all cyber threats. Gathering threat intelligence is a part of a broader security
strategy and should be used in conjunction with other security measures, not in lieu of
them. Gathering threat intelligence from the deep web and dark web is not related to
increasing an organization's web presence; it's about identifying potential cyber threats.
Which tool should a malware analyst utilize to track the registry's changes and the file
system while running a suspicious executable on a Windows system?
DiskMon
Autoruns
Process Monitor
, ProcDump - Correct Answer Process Monitor
Process Monitor is an advanced monitoring tool for Windows that shows real-time file
system, Registry, and process/thread activity. Autoruns shows you what programs are
configured to run during system bootup or login. ProcDump is a command-line utility
whose primary purpose is monitoring an application for CPU spikes and generating crash
dumps during a spike that an administrator or developer can use to determine the cause
of the spike. DiskMon is an application that logs and displays all hard disk activity on a
Windows system. This question may seem beyond the scope of the exam. Still, the
objectives allow for "other examples of technologies, processes, or tasks about each
objective may also be included on the exam although not listed or covered" in the
objectives' bulletized lists. The exam tests the equivalent of 4 years of hands-on
experience in a technical cybersecurity job role. The content examples listed in the
objectives are meant to clarify the test objectives and should not be construed as a
comprehensive listing of this examination's content. Therefore, questions like this are fair
game on test day. That said, your goal isn't to score 100% on the exam; it is to pass it.
Don't let questions like this throw you off on test day. If you aren't sure, take your best
guess and move on!
Which of the following is NOT a valid reason to conduct reverse engineering?
To commit industrial espionage
To allow an attacker to spot vulnerabilities in an executable
To allow the software developer to spot flaws in their source code
To determine how a piece of malware operates - Correct Answer To allow the software
developer to spot flaws in their source code
If a software developer has a copy of their source code, there is no need to reverse
engineer it since they can directly examine the code. Doing this is known as static code
analysis, not reverse engineering. Reverse engineering is the process of analyzing a
system's or application's structure to reveal more about how it functions. In malware,
examining the code that implements its functionality can provide you with information as
to how the malware propagates and what its primary directives are. Reverse engineering
is also used to conduct industrial espionage since it can allow a company to figure out how
a competitor's application works and develop its own version. An attacker might use
reverse engineering of an application or executable to identify a flaw or vulnerability in its
operation and then exploit that flaw as part of their attack.
