Psychiatric Technician Pharmacology
Board Exam Review Questions &
Answers/ Updated 2025
1. The client is asking the medication nurse for his PRN sedative/hypnotic. The
medication nurse asks the client whether he attempted to go to sleep naturally first
before he came to the medication room. The client responded that he hadn't tried this.
The medication nurse should encourage the client to attempt to sleep first or suggest
some relaxation methods because sedative-hypnotics tend to:
A. Suppress REM sleep.
B. Cause the client to wake up abruptly.
C. Cause severe dry mouth.
D. Be expensive medication. - CORRECT ANSWER-A. Suppress REM sleep.
Rationale: Sedative-hypnotic medications, such as benzodiazepines, are known to
suppress REM (rapid eye movement) sleep, which is the stage of sleep associated with
dreaming and cognitive restoration. By suppressing REM sleep, these medications can
potentially disrupt the normal sleep architecture and result in impaired sleep quality.
Therefore, the medication nurse should encourage the client to attempt natural sleep or
suggest relaxation methods before resorting to sedative-hypnotics.
2. One difference between Ativan IM and other parenteral IM injections for anxiety is:
A. It cannot be given in the gluteus maximus site.
B. The client must be observed carefully for serious side effects.
C. It must be refrigerated.
D. It can cause respiratory depression. - CORRECT ANSWER-C. It must be
refrigerated
Rationale: Ativan (lorazepam) lose ~50 percent of its potency if it is stored at
temperatures over 86°F for days or weeks. Refrigerate between 2° to 8°C (36° to 46°F).
PROTECT FROM LIGHT.
Use carton to protect contents from light.
3. A sedative/hypnotic medication that is generally well tolerated with only mild side
effects is:
A. chloral hydrate (Noctes).
B. triazolam (Halcion).
C. secobarbital (Secondly).
D. desipramine (Nonprime). - CORRECT ANSWER-A. Chloral hydrate (Noctes)
4. The psychiatrist prescribes alprazolam (Xanax), a benzodiazepine, for acute anxiety
experienced by a client with agoraphobia. Health teaching should include instructions
about:
,A. A tyramine- free diet.
B. Adjusting dose and frequency of ingestion based on level of anxiety.
C. Avoiding alcoholic beverages.
D. Reporting dry mouth. - CORRECT ANSWER-C. Avoiding alcoholic beverages.
Rationale: When prescribing alprazolam (Xanax), a benzodiazepine, for acute anxiety in
a client with agoraphobia, it is important to instruct the client to avoid alcoholic
beverages. Benzodiazepines like alprazolam can enhance the sedative effects of
alcohol, leading to increased drowsiness, dizziness, and impaired coordination.
Combining benzodiazepines with alcohol can also result in severe central nervous
system depression, respiratory depression, and even overdose. Therefore, it is
essential to educate the client about the potential dangers of consuming alcohol while
taking alprazolam.
5. How often and what dosage is alprazolam (Xanax) given to clients?
A. 0.25-1.0 mg. b.i.d.
B. 0.25-0.5 mg. t.i.d.
C. 0.5-1.0 mg. t.i.d.
D. 0.5-1.0 mg. q.i.d. - CORRECT ANSWER-B: 0.25-0.5 mg t.i.d.
The rationale for this dosage is as follows:
Individualized treatment: The dosage of alprazolam can vary depending on factors such
as the severity of the anxiety disorder, the patient's response to the medication, and
their medical history. It is essential for healthcare providers to tailor the dosage to the
specific needs of each patient.
Gradual titration: Starting with a lower dosage, such as 0.25-0.5 mg, allows for a
cautious approach to treatment. It helps to minimize the risk of side effects and allows
the healthcare provider to assess the patient's response before potentially adjusting the
dosage.
Therapeutic effect: Alprazolam is a benzodiazepine medication that acts as an anxiolytic
and can provide relief from anxiety symptoms. The dosage range of 0.25-0.5 mg has
been found effective for many individuals in managing anxiety disorders, providing the
desired therapeutic effect.
6. The psychiatric technician is to give Haldol Decanoate 300 mg IM to a client. The
label on the ampule reads Haldol Decanoate 100mg/ml. The hospital policy states that
no more than 2 ml can be given to a client in one site. The psychiatric technician will
give:
A. 2 ml. in one site and 2 ml in another site.
B. 1 ml. in one site and then one hour later give 2 ml. in the same site.
C. 1 1/2 ml. in one site and 1 1/2 ml in another site.
D. 1 1/2 ml. in one site. - CORRECT ANSWER-C. 1 1/2 ml. in one site and 1 1/2 ml. in
another site.
, Rationale: The label on the ampule indicates that Haldol Decanoate has a concentration
of 100 mg/ml. The prescribed dose is 300 mg. Since the hospital policy states that no
more than 2 ml can be given at one site, the psychiatric technician will need to split the
dose between two injection sites. Each site can receive a maximum of 2 ml, so the
technician will administer 1 1/2 ml (150 mg) in one site and another 1 1/2 ml (150 mg) in
another site to achieve the total prescribed dose of 300 mg.
7. Mr. Jones goes to his family physician complaining of a gnawing pain in his
abdomen. He has had a lot of stress lately at work and has been taking a corticosteriod
medication. The physician diagnoses the problem to be a peptic ulcer. The most likely
medication the physician will prescribe for Mr. Jones is:
A. chlorzoxazone.
B. methsuximide.
C. furazolidone.
D. famotidine. - CORRECT ANSWER-D. famotidine.
Rationale: Given the symptoms of a gnawing pain in the abdomen and the patient's
recent stress and corticosteroid use, the physician is likely to diagnose a peptic ulcer.
The most likely medication that the physician will prescribe for Mr. Jones is famotidine.
Famotidine is a histamine-2 receptor antagonist that reduces the production of stomach
acid, providing relief from symptoms and promoting the healing of peptic ulcers.
8. The psychiatric technician is to give 400 mg of chlorpromazine to the client at 1200.
There are both 100 mg and 200 mg tablets of chlorpromazine in the client's medication
cassette. The psychiatric technician would give:
A. Four of the 100 mg. tablets.
B. Two of the 100 mg. tablets.
C. Two of the 200 mg. tablets.
D. One 100 mg. tablet and one 200 mg. tablet. - CORRECT ANSWER-B. two of the 200
mg tablets.
Rationale:
To administer 400 mg of chlorpromazine to the client, we need to select the combination
of tablets that adds up to the desired dosage. Since there are both 100 mg and 200 mg
tablets available, we need to determine the combination that adds up to 400 mg.
9. The doctor has ordered 10 mg of a medication and the label on the bottle reads 0.005
grams
per tablet. How many tablets should the client receive?
A. One
B. One and a half
C. Two
D. Three - CORRECT ANSWER-C. Two
Rationale: Since 1 gram is equal to 1000 milligrams, we can convert the weight of each
tablet from grams to milligrams:
Board Exam Review Questions &
Answers/ Updated 2025
1. The client is asking the medication nurse for his PRN sedative/hypnotic. The
medication nurse asks the client whether he attempted to go to sleep naturally first
before he came to the medication room. The client responded that he hadn't tried this.
The medication nurse should encourage the client to attempt to sleep first or suggest
some relaxation methods because sedative-hypnotics tend to:
A. Suppress REM sleep.
B. Cause the client to wake up abruptly.
C. Cause severe dry mouth.
D. Be expensive medication. - CORRECT ANSWER-A. Suppress REM sleep.
Rationale: Sedative-hypnotic medications, such as benzodiazepines, are known to
suppress REM (rapid eye movement) sleep, which is the stage of sleep associated with
dreaming and cognitive restoration. By suppressing REM sleep, these medications can
potentially disrupt the normal sleep architecture and result in impaired sleep quality.
Therefore, the medication nurse should encourage the client to attempt natural sleep or
suggest relaxation methods before resorting to sedative-hypnotics.
2. One difference between Ativan IM and other parenteral IM injections for anxiety is:
A. It cannot be given in the gluteus maximus site.
B. The client must be observed carefully for serious side effects.
C. It must be refrigerated.
D. It can cause respiratory depression. - CORRECT ANSWER-C. It must be
refrigerated
Rationale: Ativan (lorazepam) lose ~50 percent of its potency if it is stored at
temperatures over 86°F for days or weeks. Refrigerate between 2° to 8°C (36° to 46°F).
PROTECT FROM LIGHT.
Use carton to protect contents from light.
3. A sedative/hypnotic medication that is generally well tolerated with only mild side
effects is:
A. chloral hydrate (Noctes).
B. triazolam (Halcion).
C. secobarbital (Secondly).
D. desipramine (Nonprime). - CORRECT ANSWER-A. Chloral hydrate (Noctes)
4. The psychiatrist prescribes alprazolam (Xanax), a benzodiazepine, for acute anxiety
experienced by a client with agoraphobia. Health teaching should include instructions
about:
,A. A tyramine- free diet.
B. Adjusting dose and frequency of ingestion based on level of anxiety.
C. Avoiding alcoholic beverages.
D. Reporting dry mouth. - CORRECT ANSWER-C. Avoiding alcoholic beverages.
Rationale: When prescribing alprazolam (Xanax), a benzodiazepine, for acute anxiety in
a client with agoraphobia, it is important to instruct the client to avoid alcoholic
beverages. Benzodiazepines like alprazolam can enhance the sedative effects of
alcohol, leading to increased drowsiness, dizziness, and impaired coordination.
Combining benzodiazepines with alcohol can also result in severe central nervous
system depression, respiratory depression, and even overdose. Therefore, it is
essential to educate the client about the potential dangers of consuming alcohol while
taking alprazolam.
5. How often and what dosage is alprazolam (Xanax) given to clients?
A. 0.25-1.0 mg. b.i.d.
B. 0.25-0.5 mg. t.i.d.
C. 0.5-1.0 mg. t.i.d.
D. 0.5-1.0 mg. q.i.d. - CORRECT ANSWER-B: 0.25-0.5 mg t.i.d.
The rationale for this dosage is as follows:
Individualized treatment: The dosage of alprazolam can vary depending on factors such
as the severity of the anxiety disorder, the patient's response to the medication, and
their medical history. It is essential for healthcare providers to tailor the dosage to the
specific needs of each patient.
Gradual titration: Starting with a lower dosage, such as 0.25-0.5 mg, allows for a
cautious approach to treatment. It helps to minimize the risk of side effects and allows
the healthcare provider to assess the patient's response before potentially adjusting the
dosage.
Therapeutic effect: Alprazolam is a benzodiazepine medication that acts as an anxiolytic
and can provide relief from anxiety symptoms. The dosage range of 0.25-0.5 mg has
been found effective for many individuals in managing anxiety disorders, providing the
desired therapeutic effect.
6. The psychiatric technician is to give Haldol Decanoate 300 mg IM to a client. The
label on the ampule reads Haldol Decanoate 100mg/ml. The hospital policy states that
no more than 2 ml can be given to a client in one site. The psychiatric technician will
give:
A. 2 ml. in one site and 2 ml in another site.
B. 1 ml. in one site and then one hour later give 2 ml. in the same site.
C. 1 1/2 ml. in one site and 1 1/2 ml in another site.
D. 1 1/2 ml. in one site. - CORRECT ANSWER-C. 1 1/2 ml. in one site and 1 1/2 ml. in
another site.
, Rationale: The label on the ampule indicates that Haldol Decanoate has a concentration
of 100 mg/ml. The prescribed dose is 300 mg. Since the hospital policy states that no
more than 2 ml can be given at one site, the psychiatric technician will need to split the
dose between two injection sites. Each site can receive a maximum of 2 ml, so the
technician will administer 1 1/2 ml (150 mg) in one site and another 1 1/2 ml (150 mg) in
another site to achieve the total prescribed dose of 300 mg.
7. Mr. Jones goes to his family physician complaining of a gnawing pain in his
abdomen. He has had a lot of stress lately at work and has been taking a corticosteriod
medication. The physician diagnoses the problem to be a peptic ulcer. The most likely
medication the physician will prescribe for Mr. Jones is:
A. chlorzoxazone.
B. methsuximide.
C. furazolidone.
D. famotidine. - CORRECT ANSWER-D. famotidine.
Rationale: Given the symptoms of a gnawing pain in the abdomen and the patient's
recent stress and corticosteroid use, the physician is likely to diagnose a peptic ulcer.
The most likely medication that the physician will prescribe for Mr. Jones is famotidine.
Famotidine is a histamine-2 receptor antagonist that reduces the production of stomach
acid, providing relief from symptoms and promoting the healing of peptic ulcers.
8. The psychiatric technician is to give 400 mg of chlorpromazine to the client at 1200.
There are both 100 mg and 200 mg tablets of chlorpromazine in the client's medication
cassette. The psychiatric technician would give:
A. Four of the 100 mg. tablets.
B. Two of the 100 mg. tablets.
C. Two of the 200 mg. tablets.
D. One 100 mg. tablet and one 200 mg. tablet. - CORRECT ANSWER-B. two of the 200
mg tablets.
Rationale:
To administer 400 mg of chlorpromazine to the client, we need to select the combination
of tablets that adds up to the desired dosage. Since there are both 100 mg and 200 mg
tablets available, we need to determine the combination that adds up to 400 mg.
9. The doctor has ordered 10 mg of a medication and the label on the bottle reads 0.005
grams
per tablet. How many tablets should the client receive?
A. One
B. One and a half
C. Two
D. Three - CORRECT ANSWER-C. Two
Rationale: Since 1 gram is equal to 1000 milligrams, we can convert the weight of each
tablet from grams to milligrams:
