NSG 6440 P r e d i c t o r t e s t
Exam Questions with Verified Answers Latest Update 2024-
2025 Graded A+
• A client presents with pruritic lesions on both knees. There are visible
silver scales. How Should this condition be managed?
a. Topical antifungal cream or ointment
b. Oral antibiotics
c. Topical corticosteroids cream
d. Topical anti-fungal/ steroid cream
FEEDBACK: Psoriasis is characterized by erythematous papules, as well as itchy,
red, precisely defined plaques with silvery scales. Auspitz sings is another common
finding. Topical agents containing tar and salicylic acid may be used. Topical
steroids, such as betamethasone, may also be ordered.
• Antidepressant discontinuation syndrome is less likely if the client
a. Is male
b. Is less than 35 y/o
c. Has taken an SSRI with a short
half life d. Gradually tapers SSRI use
FEEDBACK: Antidepressant discontinuation syndrome is most often seen in
theprimary care
office in association with SSRI discontinuation, because SSRIs are the most
commonly prescribed class of antidepressant medications. Interruption of
,NSG 6440 P r e d i c t o r t e s t
Exam Questions with Verified Answers Latest Update 2024-
2025 Graded A+
treatment with an anti-depressant medication is sometimes associated with an
antidepressant discontinuation syndrome; in early reports it was referred to as a
“withdrawal reaction. Symptoms of antidepressant discontinuation syndrome can
include flu-like symptoms, insomnia, nausea, imbalance, sensory disturbances,
and hyperarousal. Tapering is recommended by experts.
• A 32 years old male client complaint of urinary frequency and burning on
urination for 3 days. Urinalyses reveals bacteriuria and positive nitrites. He denies
any past hx. Of urinary tract infections. The initial treatment should be:
a. trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole (Bactrim, Sulfatrim) for 7-10 day
b. ciprofloxacin (Cipro) for 3-5 days
c. Trimethoprim-Sulfamethoxazole for 3 days
d. 750 mg ciprofloxacin as a one-time dose
FEEDBACK: trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole (TMPS) is usually n
appropriatemedication to treat urinary tract infections in most clients. In the
case of community resistance to TMPS
>20%^, another medication should be substituted. In men, the appropriate length
of time is 7-10 days. Women may be treated for 3 days for uncomplicated UTI
• Which agent is most effective for the treatment of nodulocystic acne?
a. Benzoyl peroxide (Benzac)
,NSG 6440 P r e d i c t o r t e s t
Exam Questions with Verified Answers Latest Update 2024-
2025 Graded A+
b. Retinoic acid (Retin A)
, NSG 6440 P r e d i c t o r t e s t
Exam Questions with Verified Answers Latest Update 2024-
2025 Graded A+
c. Topical
tetracycline d.
Isotretinoin)
FEEDBACK: Isotretinoin (Accutane) is a systemic agent indicated for treatment
with severe inflammatory acne. Guidelines for its use must be clearly understood
by the client. A woman of childbearing age must use an effective method of
contraception because isotretinoin is teratogenic. There are many restrictions in
prescribing this medication because of the teratogenic effects is given during
pregnancy. Therefore, it is a pregnancy category X.
• An 18 y/o woman is taking a combined hormonal oral contraceptive.
She should be instructed to use a backup method for the prevention of
pregnancy
a. Throughout the week of placebo pills
b. If prescribed topiramate (Topamax) for the treatment of migraines.
Exam Questions with Verified Answers Latest Update 2024-
2025 Graded A+
• A client presents with pruritic lesions on both knees. There are visible
silver scales. How Should this condition be managed?
a. Topical antifungal cream or ointment
b. Oral antibiotics
c. Topical corticosteroids cream
d. Topical anti-fungal/ steroid cream
FEEDBACK: Psoriasis is characterized by erythematous papules, as well as itchy,
red, precisely defined plaques with silvery scales. Auspitz sings is another common
finding. Topical agents containing tar and salicylic acid may be used. Topical
steroids, such as betamethasone, may also be ordered.
• Antidepressant discontinuation syndrome is less likely if the client
a. Is male
b. Is less than 35 y/o
c. Has taken an SSRI with a short
half life d. Gradually tapers SSRI use
FEEDBACK: Antidepressant discontinuation syndrome is most often seen in
theprimary care
office in association with SSRI discontinuation, because SSRIs are the most
commonly prescribed class of antidepressant medications. Interruption of
,NSG 6440 P r e d i c t o r t e s t
Exam Questions with Verified Answers Latest Update 2024-
2025 Graded A+
treatment with an anti-depressant medication is sometimes associated with an
antidepressant discontinuation syndrome; in early reports it was referred to as a
“withdrawal reaction. Symptoms of antidepressant discontinuation syndrome can
include flu-like symptoms, insomnia, nausea, imbalance, sensory disturbances,
and hyperarousal. Tapering is recommended by experts.
• A 32 years old male client complaint of urinary frequency and burning on
urination for 3 days. Urinalyses reveals bacteriuria and positive nitrites. He denies
any past hx. Of urinary tract infections. The initial treatment should be:
a. trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole (Bactrim, Sulfatrim) for 7-10 day
b. ciprofloxacin (Cipro) for 3-5 days
c. Trimethoprim-Sulfamethoxazole for 3 days
d. 750 mg ciprofloxacin as a one-time dose
FEEDBACK: trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole (TMPS) is usually n
appropriatemedication to treat urinary tract infections in most clients. In the
case of community resistance to TMPS
>20%^, another medication should be substituted. In men, the appropriate length
of time is 7-10 days. Women may be treated for 3 days for uncomplicated UTI
• Which agent is most effective for the treatment of nodulocystic acne?
a. Benzoyl peroxide (Benzac)
,NSG 6440 P r e d i c t o r t e s t
Exam Questions with Verified Answers Latest Update 2024-
2025 Graded A+
b. Retinoic acid (Retin A)
, NSG 6440 P r e d i c t o r t e s t
Exam Questions with Verified Answers Latest Update 2024-
2025 Graded A+
c. Topical
tetracycline d.
Isotretinoin)
FEEDBACK: Isotretinoin (Accutane) is a systemic agent indicated for treatment
with severe inflammatory acne. Guidelines for its use must be clearly understood
by the client. A woman of childbearing age must use an effective method of
contraception because isotretinoin is teratogenic. There are many restrictions in
prescribing this medication because of the teratogenic effects is given during
pregnancy. Therefore, it is a pregnancy category X.
• An 18 y/o woman is taking a combined hormonal oral contraceptive.
She should be instructed to use a backup method for the prevention of
pregnancy
a. Throughout the week of placebo pills
b. If prescribed topiramate (Topamax) for the treatment of migraines.
