D115 master set-Advanced Pathophysiology for the Advanced Practice Nurse
D115 master set-Advanced Pathophysiology for
the Advanced Practice Nurse Study Guide
Graded A 2024
Which type of genetic disease affects males more frequently than females? - Sex-
Linked recessive. Since males only have one X and one Y, if the affected chromosome
has the illness, it will be expressed.
In which two conditions are chromosomal abnormalities the leading known cause? -
Intellectual disability and fetal miscarriage. Chromosome abnormalities are the leading
known cause of intellectual disability and fetal miscarriage.
What are three examples of prenatal diagnostic studies? - Chorionic villus sampling
(CVS), amniocentesis, and preimplantation genetic testing (PGT) are examples of
prenatal diagnostic studies and are performed in vitro. CVS is a form of genetic testing
that provides genetic information found in utero and is usually performed between
weeks 11 and 14 of pregnancy. An amniocentesis is a form of genetic testing that
evaluates amniotic fluid and is usually performed during the second trimester, between
weeks 15 and 20 of pregnancy. PGT is performed on the embryo prior to implantation.
Which genetic disorder is characterized by the presence of a zygote having one
chromosome with a normal complement of genes and one chromosome with a missing
gene? - Cri du chat syndrome (translated as "cry of the cat") is caused by a DNA
deletion. This term describes the cry often heard from a baby affected by the syndrome.
Cri du chat syndrome can present as a microcephalic, low birth-weight baby with a
piercing cry.
D115 master set-Advanced Pathophysiology for the Advanced Practice Nurse
, D115 master set-Advanced Pathophysiology for the Advanced Practice Nurse
How can an X-linked recessive disease skip generations? - The disease can be
transmitted through female carriers.
Since females have two copies of the X chromosome, the mother may provide an
unaffected X to a daughter or son. Furthermore, a daughter may not show signs of the
disease because she has the other X (the only X the father can give to a female) to
cancel it out.
Which type of risk is referred to as the ratio of the disease rate among the entire
population to the disease rate in an unexposed population? - Relative risk is a ratio of
probability, not an actual occurrence of disease.
What are the empirical risks for most multifactorial diseases based on? - Many factors
from lifestyle to genetics affect multifactorial diseases. Observation and evaluation of
each case individually provides the most thorough and accurate assessment.
What refers to the silenced gene of a gene pair. - The imprinted gene is the silent gene
of a gene pair.
What is the primary reason that some older adults have impaired inflammation and
wound healing? - The underlying chronic illness exists.
A generalized inflammatory response seen in chronic illness depletes the body's
reserves to fight against illness.
Which cells are the body's primary defense against parasite invasion? - Eosinophils are
the body's primary defense against parasites.
D115 master set-Advanced Pathophysiology for the Advanced Practice Nurse
, D115 master set-Advanced Pathophysiology for the Advanced Practice Nurse
What Phagocytes bacteria? - Macrophages work by eating or phagocytosing bacteria.
What is the first response to a foreign pathogen? - Helper T cells
Which characteristic is the most important determinant of immunogenicity when
considering the antigen? - Immunogenicity is primarily based on the ability to recognize
something foreign.
How are erythrocytes destroyed when mismatched blood is administered, causing an
ABO incompatibility? - The complement pathway is activated in response to blood
incompatibility.
What is the hypersensitivity reaction that causes atopic dermatitis? - An immediate (type
I) hypersensitivity reaction causes atopic dermatitis.
Which four infections are considered fungal infections? - Infection with a fungus is called
mycosis and includes dermatophytes (e.g., tineas, which refers to several skin
mycoses, including ringworm and athlete's foot) and yeasts, which include candida and
aspergillus.
When is the earliest after sexual transmission of HIV that lab results can detect
infection? - Lab testing can detect HIV RNA 4 to 10 days after sexual transmission,
whereas HIV antibody testing may take 23 to 90 days to result in a positive test. Repeat
testing may be needed to rule out a false negative test due to testing too soon after
exposure, especially if a high likelihood of exposure is suspected.
D115 master set-Advanced Pathophysiology for the Advanced Practice Nurse
, D115 master set-Advanced Pathophysiology for the Advanced Practice Nurse
What is a characteristic of exotoxins? - Exotoxins are released during bacterial growth.
Which dietary lifestyle choice has been associated with a decreased risk for developing
colon cancer? - The results of decreased fat consumption have been widely studied and
have demonstrated a decreased risk of developing colon cancer.
Which cancer is an individual who has worked with asbestos for over 40 years most
likely to develop? - Asbestos exposure results in an increased risk of lung and lung
lining cancer.
Which statement is true regarding ultraviolet (UV) light?
The degree of damage is not affected by the light's wavelength. - UV light causes basal
cell carcinoma and squamous cell carcinoma when the UVB rays hit DNA strands,
causing thymine base pairs that are side by side to pair together, becoming thymine
dimers. These thymine dimers lead to cell death or cancer.
Which cancer does exercise have a convincing impact on reducing? - Exercise-induced
myokines cause apoptosis of colon cancer cells.
Low healthcare literacy is recognized as a major risk factor in blood pressure control
and has been shown to have adverse effects on health outcomes.
true or false - TRUE
By providing patient education at the appropriate literacy level, improved health
outcomes may result.
D115 master set-Advanced Pathophysiology for the Advanced Practice Nurse
D115 master set-Advanced Pathophysiology for
the Advanced Practice Nurse Study Guide
Graded A 2024
Which type of genetic disease affects males more frequently than females? - Sex-
Linked recessive. Since males only have one X and one Y, if the affected chromosome
has the illness, it will be expressed.
In which two conditions are chromosomal abnormalities the leading known cause? -
Intellectual disability and fetal miscarriage. Chromosome abnormalities are the leading
known cause of intellectual disability and fetal miscarriage.
What are three examples of prenatal diagnostic studies? - Chorionic villus sampling
(CVS), amniocentesis, and preimplantation genetic testing (PGT) are examples of
prenatal diagnostic studies and are performed in vitro. CVS is a form of genetic testing
that provides genetic information found in utero and is usually performed between
weeks 11 and 14 of pregnancy. An amniocentesis is a form of genetic testing that
evaluates amniotic fluid and is usually performed during the second trimester, between
weeks 15 and 20 of pregnancy. PGT is performed on the embryo prior to implantation.
Which genetic disorder is characterized by the presence of a zygote having one
chromosome with a normal complement of genes and one chromosome with a missing
gene? - Cri du chat syndrome (translated as "cry of the cat") is caused by a DNA
deletion. This term describes the cry often heard from a baby affected by the syndrome.
Cri du chat syndrome can present as a microcephalic, low birth-weight baby with a
piercing cry.
D115 master set-Advanced Pathophysiology for the Advanced Practice Nurse
, D115 master set-Advanced Pathophysiology for the Advanced Practice Nurse
How can an X-linked recessive disease skip generations? - The disease can be
transmitted through female carriers.
Since females have two copies of the X chromosome, the mother may provide an
unaffected X to a daughter or son. Furthermore, a daughter may not show signs of the
disease because she has the other X (the only X the father can give to a female) to
cancel it out.
Which type of risk is referred to as the ratio of the disease rate among the entire
population to the disease rate in an unexposed population? - Relative risk is a ratio of
probability, not an actual occurrence of disease.
What are the empirical risks for most multifactorial diseases based on? - Many factors
from lifestyle to genetics affect multifactorial diseases. Observation and evaluation of
each case individually provides the most thorough and accurate assessment.
What refers to the silenced gene of a gene pair. - The imprinted gene is the silent gene
of a gene pair.
What is the primary reason that some older adults have impaired inflammation and
wound healing? - The underlying chronic illness exists.
A generalized inflammatory response seen in chronic illness depletes the body's
reserves to fight against illness.
Which cells are the body's primary defense against parasite invasion? - Eosinophils are
the body's primary defense against parasites.
D115 master set-Advanced Pathophysiology for the Advanced Practice Nurse
, D115 master set-Advanced Pathophysiology for the Advanced Practice Nurse
What Phagocytes bacteria? - Macrophages work by eating or phagocytosing bacteria.
What is the first response to a foreign pathogen? - Helper T cells
Which characteristic is the most important determinant of immunogenicity when
considering the antigen? - Immunogenicity is primarily based on the ability to recognize
something foreign.
How are erythrocytes destroyed when mismatched blood is administered, causing an
ABO incompatibility? - The complement pathway is activated in response to blood
incompatibility.
What is the hypersensitivity reaction that causes atopic dermatitis? - An immediate (type
I) hypersensitivity reaction causes atopic dermatitis.
Which four infections are considered fungal infections? - Infection with a fungus is called
mycosis and includes dermatophytes (e.g., tineas, which refers to several skin
mycoses, including ringworm and athlete's foot) and yeasts, which include candida and
aspergillus.
When is the earliest after sexual transmission of HIV that lab results can detect
infection? - Lab testing can detect HIV RNA 4 to 10 days after sexual transmission,
whereas HIV antibody testing may take 23 to 90 days to result in a positive test. Repeat
testing may be needed to rule out a false negative test due to testing too soon after
exposure, especially if a high likelihood of exposure is suspected.
D115 master set-Advanced Pathophysiology for the Advanced Practice Nurse
, D115 master set-Advanced Pathophysiology for the Advanced Practice Nurse
What is a characteristic of exotoxins? - Exotoxins are released during bacterial growth.
Which dietary lifestyle choice has been associated with a decreased risk for developing
colon cancer? - The results of decreased fat consumption have been widely studied and
have demonstrated a decreased risk of developing colon cancer.
Which cancer is an individual who has worked with asbestos for over 40 years most
likely to develop? - Asbestos exposure results in an increased risk of lung and lung
lining cancer.
Which statement is true regarding ultraviolet (UV) light?
The degree of damage is not affected by the light's wavelength. - UV light causes basal
cell carcinoma and squamous cell carcinoma when the UVB rays hit DNA strands,
causing thymine base pairs that are side by side to pair together, becoming thymine
dimers. These thymine dimers lead to cell death or cancer.
Which cancer does exercise have a convincing impact on reducing? - Exercise-induced
myokines cause apoptosis of colon cancer cells.
Low healthcare literacy is recognized as a major risk factor in blood pressure control
and has been shown to have adverse effects on health outcomes.
true or false - TRUE
By providing patient education at the appropriate literacy level, improved health
outcomes may result.
D115 master set-Advanced Pathophysiology for the Advanced Practice Nurse
