Radiographic Positioning and Related Anatomy exam with complete solutions

Another term for the intercondylar sulcus is the: A. Articular Facets B. Patellar Surface C. Femoropatellar Joint Space D. Intercondylar Recess 2 Which of the following routines should be performed for a study of the second toe? A. AP, AP Oblique with Lateral Rotation, Mediolateral Projection B. AP, AP Oblique with Medial Rotation, Lateromedial Projection C. AP, AP Oblique with Lateral Rotation, Lateromedial Projection D. AP, AP Oblique with Medial Rotation, Mediolateral Projection 3 Saclike structures found in the knee joint that allow smooth articulation between ligaments and tendons are called: A. Bursae B. Menisci C. Synovial Membranes D. Synovial Bodies 4 Which structure or bone contains the sustentaculum tali? A. Calcaneus B. Talus C. Base of the fifth metatarsal D. Tibia Don't know? Terms in this set (65) Original How many tarsals bones are found in the foot? A. 7 B. 14 C. 5 D. 26 A. 7 Which term describes the top or anterior surface of the foot? A. Palmar B. Dorsum C. Volar D. Plantar B. Dorsum Brainpower Read More Which structure or bone contains the sustentaculum tali? A. Calcaneus B. Talus C. Base of the fifth metatarsal D. Tibia A. Calcaneus How many articular facets make up the subtalar joint? A. One B. Two C. Three D. Four C. Three Another term for the intercondylar sulcus is the: A. Articular Facets B. Patellar Surface C. Femoropatellar Joint Space D. Intercondylar Recess B. Patellar Surface To decrease the angle between the anterior surface of the foot and the anterior surface of the lower leg is described as: A. Plantar Flexion B. Inversion C. Dorsiflexion D. Eversion C. Dorsiflexion The patellofemoral joint is a _____ joint with a _____ type of movement. A. Synovial; Ginglymus B. Fibrous; Immovable C. Synovial; Sellar D. Synovial; Bicondylar C. Synovial, Sellar The calcaneus articulates with the talus and the: A. Cuboid B. Navicular C. Medial Cuneiform D. Lateral Cuneiform A. Cuboid A lateral knee radiograph that is over rotated (externally) toward the image receptor can be recognized by which of the following? A. The fibular head will appear more superimposed by the tibia than a true lateral. B. The fibular head will appear less superimposed by the tibia than a true lateral. C. The medial condyle of femur will appear more posterior. D. Both A and C are correct. B. The fibular head will appear less superimposed by the tibia than a true lateral. A correctly positioned AP 45 degree medial oblique ankle projection frequently may also demonstrate a fracture of the base of the fifth metatarsal if present. A. True B. False A. True Which metatarsal bone of the foot has a prominent tuberosity frequently fractured? A. First B. Third C. Fourth D. Fifth D. Fifth Where would the interphalangeal joint be found in the foot? A. Between the phalanges of the second through fifth digits. B. Between the tarsal bones and phalanges. C. Between the phalanges of the first digit. D. Between any of the metatarsals and phalanges. C. Between the phalanges of the first digit. What are the two arches of the foot? A. Anterior and Longitudinal B. Longitudinal and Transverse C. Transverse and Anterior D. Instep and Cross-Step B. Longitudinal and Transverse The medial malleolus is part of the: A. Talus B. Calcaneus C. Fibula D. Tibia D. Tibia T/F : The patella is drawn into the intercondylar sulcus when the knee is overextended. False Saclike structures found in the knee joint that allow smooth articulation between ligaments and tendons are called: A. Bursae B. Menisci C. Synovial Membranes D. Synovial Bodies A. Bursae T/F : The adductor tubercle is located on the posterior aspect of the medial femoral condyle. True Which of the following joints is a modified ellipsoidal or condyloid joint? A. Tarsometatarsal B. Metatarsophalangeal C. Proximal Tibiofibular D. Intertarsal B. Metatarsophalangeal Which of the following routines should be performed for a study of the second toe? A. AP, AP Oblique with Lateral Rotation, Mediolateral Projection B. AP, AP Oblique with Medial Rotation, Lateromedial Projection C. AP, AP Oblique with Lateral Rotation, Lateromedial Projection D. AP, AP Oblique with Medial Rotation, Mediolateral Projection B. AP, AP Oblique with Medial Rotation, Lateromedial Projection To properly visualize the joint spaces with the AP projection of the foot, the CR must be: A. Parallel to the longitudinal arch. B. Perpendicular to the metatarsals. C. Perpendicular to the longitudinal arch. D. Parallel to the metatarsals. B. Perpendicular to the metatarsals. How much CR angulation to the long axis of the foot is required for the plantodorsal (axial) projection of the calcaneus? A. 45-50 Degrees B. 15-20 Degrees C. 30-35 Degrees D. 40 Degrees D. 40 Degrees Where is the CR placed for a mediolateral projection of the calcaneus? A. Base of the fifth metatarsal B. Trochlear process C. Base of the third metatarsal D. 1 inch (2.5 cm) inferior to the medial malleolus D. 1 inch (2.5 cm) inferior to the medial malleolus Which of the following projections of the ankle will best demonstrate the open joint space of the lateral aspect of the ankle joint? A. AP oblique with 45 degree rotation B. AP mortise projection C. Lateromedial ankle D. AP projection B. AP mortise projection What type of CR angle is required for the PA axial weight-bearing bilateral knee projection (Rosenberg Method)? A. 10 degrees caudad B. 5-7 degrees cephalad C. 20-25 degrees caudad D. None, CR is perpendicular to IR A. 10 degrees caudad A radiograph of an AP medial oblique projection of the foot, if positioned correctly, should demonstrate: A. First through fifth metatarsals free of superimposition. B. Third through fifth metatarsals free of superimposition. C. First and second cuneiform joint space is open. D. CR is centered to midshaft of third metatarsal. B. Third through fifth metatarsals free of superimposition. T/F : The adductor tubercle is present on the medial, posterior aspect of the femoral condyle and can be used to determine possible rotation of a lateral knee projection. True The profile appearance of the adductor tubercle and excessive superimposition of the fibular head and neck on a lateral knee projection indicate: A. Overrotation of the knee toward the IR. B. Underrotation of the knee toward the IR. C. A true lateral knee. D. The CR should be angled 5-7 degrees cephalad. B. Underrotation of the knee toward the IR. T/F : The correct CR placement for an AP projection of the knee is midpatella. False T/F : The foot must be forced dorsiflexion so that the long axis of the foot is perpendicular to the image receptor for AP and mortise projections of the ankle. False For the AP weight-bearing knee projection on an average patient, the CR should be: A. 10 degrees caudad B. 5-10 degrees cephalad C. Perpendicular to the IR D. CR perpendicular to the IR but increase SID to 60 inches. C. Perpendicular to the IR How much knee flexion is required for the weight-bearing PA axial projection (Rosenberg Method) of the knee? A. None; the knee is fully extended. B. 30 degree flexion C. 45 degree flexion D. 50-60 degree flexion C. 45 degree flexion Which of the following structures is not an aspect of the proximal femur? A. Intertrochanteric Crest B. Fovea Capitis C. Obturator Foramen D. Lesser Trochanter C. Obturator Foramen Which of the following structures is considered to be most inferior or distal? A. Fovea Capitis B. Lesser Trochanter C. Neck D. Greater Trochanter B. Lesser Trochanter Why must the lower limb be rotated 15-20 degrees internally for AP hip projections? A. To separate the greater trochanter from the lesser trochanter. B. To place the fovea capitis into a profiled position. C. To open up the femoroacetabular joint. D. To place the femoral neck parallel to the image receptor. D. To place the femoral neck parallel to the image receptor. T/F : The term pelvic girdle refers to the total pelvis including the sacrum and coccyx. False Which bones fuse to form the acetabulum? A. Ischium and pubis B. Ilium and ischium C. Pubis, ilium, and sacrum D. Ischium, pubis, and ilium D. Ischium, pubis, and ilium Which bone of the pelvic girdle forms the anterior inferior aspect? A. Ilium B. Ischium C. Pubis D. Sacrum C. Pubis The sacroiliac joints are classified as ___ joints with ___ mobility. A. Cartilaginous; amphiarthrodial B. Synovial; amphiarthrodial C. Cartilaginous; synarthrodial D. Fibrous; amphiarthrodial B. Synovial; amphiarthrodial The symphysis pubis provides limited movement during pelvic trauma and during: A. Walking and running B. Flexing and extending C. Labor and delivery D. Voiding C. Labor and delivery The two bony landmarks that are palpated using the hip localization method are the: A. Ischial spine and the symphysis pubis B. Symphysis pubis and the greater trochanter C. ASIS and the crest of the ilium D. ASIS and symphysis pubis D. ASIS and symphysis pubis Using the hip localization method, the femoral head can be located: A. 1 in (2.5 cm) below the midpoint of the imaginary line between the two bony landmarks. B. 1 1/2 in (4 cm) below the midpoint of the imaginary line between the two bony landmarks. C. 2 1/2 in (6-7 cm) below the midpoint of the imaginary line between the two bony landmarks. D. At the level of the symphysis pubis. B. 1 1/2 in (4 cm) below the midpoint of the imaginary line between the two bony landmarks. Select the correct gender to correspond with the following pelvic characteristics. More oval or heart-shaped pelvic inlet: A. Male B. Female A. Male Select the correct gender to correspond with the following pelvic characteristics. Wider and shallow general shape of the pelvis: A. Male B. Female B. Female Gonadal shielding of the male patient for the AP pelvis projection requires that the top of the shield is not extended above the level of the: A. ASIS B. Ischial Spine C. Inferior margin of the symphysis pubis D. None of the above; gonadal shielding cannot be used due to possible covering of pertinent anatomy. C. Inferior margin of the symphysis pubis T/F : Gonadal shielding should be used on both males and females of childbearing age for AP hip projections, if correctly placed. True Where is the CR placed for an AP projection of the pelvis? A. 1 in (2.5 cm) above the symphysis pubis B. At the level of the ASIS C. At the level of the iliac crest D. Midway between the ASIS and the symphysis pubis D. Midway between the ASIS and the symphysis pubis What is the amount of abduction of the femurs recommended for an AP bilateral frog-leg projection? A. 10-15 Degrees B. 50-60 Degrees C. 40-45 Degrees D. 90 Degrees C. 40-45 Degrees Which of the following positions will be best demonstrated signs of developmental dysplasia of the hip? A. Posterior Oblique (Judet Method) B. Axiolateral, Inferosuperior (Danelius-Miller Method) C. Taylor Method D. Bilateral Frog-Leg Method D. Bilateral Frog-Leg Method What type of CR angle must be used for an AP axial (Taylor method) "outlet" projection for a male patient? A. 20-35 Degrees Caudad B. 15-20 Degrees Cephalad C. 20-35 Degrees Cephalad D. 0 Degrees (CR perpendicular to the IR) C. 20-35 Degrees Cephalad T/F : Only a small part of the lesser trochanter, if any, will be visible on a well-positioned axiolateral (inferosuperior) lateral hip. True On average, how many separate bones make up the adult vertebral column? A. 33 B. 28 C. 26 D. 31 C. 26 Scoliosis is defined as an abnormal or exaggerated ___ curvature. A. Concave B. Convex C. Lateral D. "Swayback" lumbar C. Lateral The most posterior aspect of a typical vertebrae is the: A. Pedicle B. Spinous Process C. Lamina D. Body B. Spinous Process Which aspect of the intervertebral disk is composed of semi gelatinous material? A. Nucleus Pulposus B. Annulus Fibrosis C. Conus Medullaris D. Cauda Equina A. Nucleus Pulposus Which of the following statements is true? A. All adult vertebrae are separated by intervertebral disks. B. All thoracic vertebrae have at least one facet for rib articulation. C. The intervertebral disks are tightly bound to the vertebral bodies to prevent movement within the vertebral column. D. All of the above are true statements. B. All thoracic vertebrae have at least one facet for rib articulation. Where is the articulate pillar located on a cervical vertebra? A. Between the superior and inferior articular processes. B. Between the pedicure and the body. C. Between the spinous process and the lamina. D. Nowhere A. Between the superior and inferior articular processes. Which thoracic vertebra(e) possesses no facets for costotransverse joints? A. T9-T10 B. T11-T12 C. T1 D. None of the above B. T11-T12 The most prominent aspect of the thyroid cartilage corresponds to the vertebral level of: A. C5 B. C1-C2 C. C6-C7 D. C7-T1 A. C5 The xiphoid process corresponds to the vertebral level of: A. T8 B. T9-T10 C. T7 D. T12 B. T9-T10 Which position or projection of the cervical spine will best demonstrate the zygapophyseal joint spaces between C1 and C2? A. Anterioposterior (AP) Axial B. Lateral C. 45 degree Posterior or Anterior Oblique D. AP Open Mouth D. AP Open Mouth The spinal cord tapers off to a point dismally at the vertebral level of: A. Lower L5 B. L2-L3 Intervertebral Space C. L1-L2 D. L4-L5 Intervertebral Space C. L1-L2 Which of the following is the first compensatory spinal curvature to develop in the young child? A. Thoracic B. Cervical C. Sacral D. Lumbar B. Cervical Kyphosis is defined as a(n): A. Normal lumbar curvature B. Normal convex sacral curvature C. Normal compensatory curve of the thoracic spine D. Abnormal thoracic curvature with increased convexity D. Abnormal thoracic curvature with increased convexity The joints between articular processes of vertebra are termed ___ joints. A. Zygapophyseal B. Fibrous C. Intervertebral D. Synarthrodial A. Zygapophyseal Which of the following statements is true for a typical adult vertebra? A. The transverse processes extend laterally from the junction of pedicles laminae. B. The transverse processes are present only on thoracic vertebrae containing rib connections. C. The spinous process extends posteriorly from the body of the vertebra. D. All of the above statements are true. A. The transverse processes extend laterally from the junction of pedicles laminae. Add or remove terms Cho