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Test Construction EPPP Test Questions Verified Guide

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Test Construction EPPP Test Questions Verified Guide 1. R-squared is used as an indicator of: - A. The number of values that are free to vary in a statistical calculation - B. The variability of scores - C. How much your ability to predict is improved using the regression line (Correct Answer) - D. The relationship between two variables that have a nonlinear relationship 2. The slope of the item response curve, with respect to item response theory, indicates an item's: - A. reliability - B. validity - C. difficulty - D. discriminability (Correct Answer) 3. A negative item discrimination (D) indicates: - A. an index equal to zero. - B. more high-achieving examinees than low-achieving examinees answered the item correctly. - C. an item was answered correctly by the same number of low- and high-achieving students. - D. more low-achieving examinees answered the item correctly than high-achieving. (Correct Answer) 4. The item difficulty ("p") index yields information about the difficulty of test items in terms of a(n) _________ scale of measurement. - A. nominal - B. ordinal (Correct Answer) - C. interval - D. ratio 5. The purpose of rotation in factor analysis is to: - A. facilitate interpretation of the factors. (Correct Answer) - B. improve the mathematical fit of the solution. - C. obtain uncorrelated factors. - D. improve the predictive validity of the factors. 6. If a predictor test has a validity of 1.0, the standard error of estimate would be: - A. equal to the standard deviation of the criterion measure. - B. 1 - C. 0 (Correct Answer) - D. unknown; there is not enough information to answer the question. 7. The primary purpose of rotation in factor analysis is to: - A. facilitate interpretation of the data. (Correct Answer) - B. improve the mathematical fit of the solution. - C. obtain uncorrelated factors. - D. improve the predictive validity of the factors. 8. Raising the cutoff score on a predictor test would have the effect of: - A. increasing true positives - B. decreasing false positives (Correct Answer) - C. decreasing true negatives - D. decreasing false negatives. 9. Discriminant and convergent validity are classified as examples of: - A. construct validity. (Correct Answer) - B. content validity - C. face validity. - D. concurrent validity. There are many ways to assess the validity of a test. If we correlate our test with another test that is supposed to measure the same thing, we'll expect the two to have a high correlation; if they do, the tests will be said to have convergent validity. If our test has a low correlation with other tests measuring something our test is not supposed to measure, it will be said to have discriminant (or divergent) validity. Convergent and divergent validity are both types of construct validity. If, in a normally-shaped distribution, the mean is 100 and the standard error of measurement is 5, what would the 95% confidence interval be for an examinee who receives a score of 90? A. 75-105 B. 80-100 C. 90-100 D. 95-105 Correct Answer is: B The standard error of measurement indicates how much error an individual test score can be expected to have. A confidence interval indicates the range within which an examinee's true score is likely to fall, given his or her obtained score. To calculate the 95% confidence interval we simply add and subtract two standard errors of measurement to the obtained score. Two standard errors of measurement in this case equal 10. We're told that the examinee's obtained score is 90. 90 +/- 10 results in a confidence interval of 80 to 100. In other words, we can be 95% confident that the examinee's true score falls within 80 and 100. If someone achieves a score of 30 on a standardized test with a standard error of measurement of 5 points, what is the approximate probability that the person's true score is between 20 and 40? A. 43526 B. 43589 C. 43747 D. 19/20 Correct Answer is: D The range given in the question encompasses the obtained score plus and minus two standard errors of measurement. That is, the standard error of measurement is 5, and the range is 10 points (2 X 5) below the obtained score to 10 points above the obtained score. One thing you should memorize is that there is about a 95% probability that a person's true score lies within two standard errors of measurement of the obtained score. But even if you knew that, you might have had trouble with this question, since the choices are given as fractions, not percentages. To answer it correctly, you needed to figure out that 19/20 is the fractional equivalent of 95%. Which of the following would be used to determine how well an examinee did on a test in terms of a specific standard of performance? A. norm-referenced interpretation B. criterion-referenced interpretation C. domain-referenced interpretation D. objectives-referenced interpretation Correct Answer is: B There are several ways an examinee's test score can be interpreted. In this question, a criterion referenced interpretation, an examinee's test performance is interpreted in terms of an external criterion, or standard of performance. In a norm-referenced interpretation, an examinee's test performance is compared to the performance of members of the norm group (other people who have taken the test). Domain-referenced interpretation is used to determine how much of a specific knowledge domain the examinee has mastered. Objectives-referenced interpretation involves interpreting an examinee's performance in terms of achievement of instructional objectives. In the multitrait-multimethod matrix, a low heterotrait-monomethod coefficient would indicate: A. low convergent validity. B. low divergent validity. C. high convergent validity. D. high divergent validity. Correct Answer is: D Use of a multitrait-multimethod matrix is one method of assessing a test's construct validity. The matrix contains correlations among different tests that measure both the same and different traits using similar and different methodologies. The heterotrait-monomethod coefficient, one of the correlation coefficients that would appear on this matrix, reflects the correlation between two tests that measure different traits using similar methods. An example might be the correlation between a test of depression based on self-report data and a test of anxiety also based on self-report data. If a test has good divergent validity, this correlation would be low. Divergent validity is the degree to which a test has a low correlation with other tests that do not measure the same construct. Using the above example, a test of depression would have good divergent validity if it had a low correlation with other tests that purportedly measure different traits, such as anxiety. This would be evidence that the depression test is not measuring traits that are unrelated to depression.

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Test Construction EPPP Test Questions Verified Guide
1. R-squared is used as an indicator of:

- A. The number of values that are free to vary in a statistical calculation

- B. The variability of scores

- C. How much your ability to predict is improved using the regression line (Correct Answer)

- D. The relationship between two variables that have a nonlinear relationship



2. The slope of the item response curve, with respect to item response theory, indicates an item's:

- A. reliability

- B. validity

- C. difficulty

- D. discriminability (Correct Answer)



3. A negative item discrimination (D) indicates:

- A. an index equal to zero.

- B. more high-achieving examinees than low-achieving examinees answered the item correctly.

- C. an item was answered correctly by the same number of low- and high-achieving students.

- D. more low-achieving examinees answered the item correctly than high-achieving. (Correct Answer)



4. The item difficulty ("p") index yields information about the difficulty of test items in terms of a(n)
_________ scale of measurement.

- A. nominal

- B. ordinal (Correct Answer)

- C. interval

- D. ratio



5. The purpose of rotation in factor analysis is to:

- A. facilitate interpretation of the factors. (Correct Answer)

- B. improve the mathematical fit of the solution.

,- C. obtain uncorrelated factors.

- D. improve the predictive validity of the factors.



6. If a predictor test has a validity of 1.0, the standard error of estimate would be:

- A. equal to the standard deviation of the criterion measure.

- B. 1

- C. 0 (Correct Answer)

- D. unknown; there is not enough information to answer the question.



7. The primary purpose of rotation in factor analysis is to:

- A. facilitate interpretation of the data. (Correct Answer)

- B. improve the mathematical fit of the solution.

- C. obtain uncorrelated factors.

- D. improve the predictive validity of the factors.



8. Raising the cutoff score on a predictor test would have the effect of:

- A. increasing true positives

- B. decreasing false positives (Correct Answer)

- C. decreasing true negatives

- D. decreasing false negatives.



9. Discriminant and convergent validity are classified as examples of:

- A. construct validity. (Correct Answer)

- B. content validity

- C. face validity.

- D. concurrent validity.


There are many ways to assess the validity of a test. If we correlate our test with another test that is
supposed to measure the same thing, we'll expect the two to have a high correlation; if they do, the
tests will be said to have convergent validity. If our test has a low correlation with other tests measuring

, something our test is not supposed to measure, it will be said to have discriminant (or divergent)
validity. Convergent and divergent validity are both types of construct validity.

If, in a normally-shaped distribution, the mean is 100 and the standard error of measurement is 5, what
would the 95% confidence interval be for an examinee who receives a score of 90?

A. 75-105
B. 80-100
C. 90-100
D. 95-105

Correct Answer is: B

The standard error of measurement indicates how much error an individual test score can be expected
to have. A confidence interval indicates the range within which an examinee's true score is likely to fall,
given his or her obtained score. To calculate the 95% confidence interval we simply add and subtract
two standard errors of measurement to the obtained score. Two standard errors of measurement in this
case equal 10. We're told that the examinee's obtained score is 90. 90 +/- 10 results in a confidence
interval of 80 to 100. In other words, we can be 95% confident that the examinee's true score falls
within 80 and 100.

If someone achieves a score of 30 on a standardized test with a standard error of measurement of 5
points, what is the approximate probability that the person's true score is between 20 and 40?

A. 43526
B. 43589
C. 43747
D. 19/20

Correct Answer is: D

The range given in the question encompasses the obtained score plus and minus two standard errors of
measurement. That is, the standard error of measurement is 5, and the range is 10 points (2 X 5) below
the obtained score to 10 points above the obtained score. One thing you should memorize is that there
is about a 95% probability that a person's true score lies within two standard errors of measurement of
the obtained score. But even if you knew that, you might have had trouble with this question, since the
choices are given as fractions, not percentages. To answer it correctly, you needed to figure out that
19/20 is the fractional equivalent of 95%.

Which of the following would be used to determine how well an examinee did on a test in terms of a
specific standard of performance?

A. norm-referenced interpretation
B. criterion-referenced interpretation
C. domain-referenced interpretation
D. objectives-referenced interpretation

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