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CDC 3E851 VOL 1 EXAM WITH 100 QUESTIONS AND VERIFIED ANSWERS

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CDC 3E851 VOL 1 EXAM WITH 100 QUESTIONS AND
VERIFIED ANSWERS


(001) A level 1 emergency is not likely to occur at which location? - ANSWER On
a military artillery range.

(001) After arrival on scene to a level 1 emergency, the explosive ordnance
disposal (EOD) team leader determined the immediate threat had diminished. What
should occur next regarding the emergency response level? - ANSWER It is
downgraded to a level 2.

(001) Which example of an extenuating circumstance would cause a level 1
emergency response munitions item to be stored for disposition at a later time? -
ANSWER Severe thunderstorms.

(001) Who is primarily responsible for the render safe and disposal of commercial
explosives? - ANSWER Civil authorities.

(001) Your flight was the first unit notified of a transportation accident involving
federally-owned explosive ordnance. Your team should strive to arrive on-scene
within how many hours (s)? - ANSWER 4.

(002) Which command coordinates all routine missions by Department of Defense
(DOD) explosive ordnance disposal (EOD) personnel, regardless of service? -
ANSWER US Northern Command (USNORTHCOM).

(002) Which duty is not a responsibility of the major command (MAJCOM)
regarding the very important person (VIP) protective support? - ANSWER
Assigning personnel to the team.

(002) What are the minimum criteria for an enlisted explosive ordnance disposal
(EOD) technician to perform team member functions on a very important person
(VIP) mission? - ANSWER Six months in place, assigned to the flight, and
satisfactory progress in upgrade training.

(002) Who is responsible for the development and dispersion of the very important

, person (VIP) mission search schedule? - ANSWER The Technical Security
Division (TSD) coordinator.

(002) Which area is not a high-threat area that must be searched during a very
important person (VIP) mission regardless of venue? - ANSWER Locker rooms.

(003) From the Incident Reports screen in the Explosive Ordnance Disposal
Incident Management System (EODIMS), which tab do you select to create a new
report? - ANSWER New.

(003) After entering a non-improvised explosive devices (IED) (conventional)
ordnance item into your incident report, what action, if any, must take place prior to
submitting the incident report? - ANSWER The ordnance must be identified and
verified by different individuals.

(003) After selecting the applicable explosive from the Explosives Used
Multi-select list in the Explosive Ordnance Disposal Incident Management System
(EODIMS), you must include the quantity and what other mandatory information
on the Explosives Used screen? - ANSWER Lot Number.

(004) If there is any doubt to the hazard division (HD) of unknown explosives,
what is used to determine net explosive weight for quantity distance (NEWQD) for
a single HD? - ANSWER HD 1.1.

(004) You are charged with disposing of a single white phosphorus (WP) round.
The round has a 2-pound (lb) burster and 12 lbs of WP filler. You are detonating it
with a 1-lb trinitrotoluene (TNT) charge. What total weight is used to calculate the
net explosive weight for quantity distance (NEWQD)? - ANSWER 3 lbs.

(004) You have encountered an unspecified ammunition and explosive (AE) threat,
what is the minimal non-essential personnel separation distance when preparing for
an accidental detonation? - ANSWER 1250 feet.

(004) During an intentional detonation involving non-fragmenting ammunition and
explosives (AE), determine the K-factor that is used for Blast Overpressure
Distance calculations on essential personnel. - ANSWER K328.

(005) What type of material is acceptable for use when constructing a large earthen
barricade for disposal of ammunition and explosives (AE)? - ANSWER Sand or
clay.

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