VATI RN PHARMACOLOGY EXAM TEST
BANK 2024-2025 WITH ACTUAL CORRECT
QUESTIONS AND VERIFIED DETAILED
ANSWERS |FREQUENTLY TESTED
QUESTIONS AND SOLUTIONS |ALREADY
GRADED A+|BRAND NEW |GUARANTEED
PASS |LATEST UPDATE
A nurse is caring for a client who is receiving heparin by continuous IV infusion for treatment of venous
thrombosis. Which of the following
laboratory values should the nurse monitor for in order to titrate the heparin dose?
O Platelet function assay
0 aPTT
O INR
O Amylase
aPTT
A nurse is assessing a client who is receiving IV furosemide for peripheral edema. Which of the following
findings should the nurse identify as an
indication that the client is developing dehydration?
O BUN 18 mg/dL
O Urine output of 240 mL in a 12—hr period
0 Weight loss of 0.61 Kg (1.34 lb) in 24 hr
0 Blood pressure 100/70 mm Hg
Urine output of 240 mL in a 12—hr period
The nurse should identify that a urinary output of 240 mL in a 12-hr period (20 mL/hr) indicates
oliguria. The nurse should recognize that oliguria is a manifestation of dehydration and should be
reported to the provider. The nurse should continue to monitor the client for other manifestations of
1|Page
,dehydration such as dry mouth, hypotension, and excessive thirst.
A BUN of 18 mg/dL is within the expected reference range of 10 to 20 mg/dL. An increased BUN is an
indication of hypovolemia. Weight loss of 0.61 kg (1.34 lb) is a therapeutic effect for a client who is
receiving IV furosemide. However, weight loss of greater than 1 kg (2.2 lb) in 24 hr can indicate
dehydration. Although hypotension is a potential adverse effect of IV furosemide, the nurse should
recognize that a BP of 100/70 mm Hg is within the expected reference range. Hypotension is a
manifestation of dehydration that occurs when the systolic blood pressure falls below 90 mm Hg.
A nurse is caring for a client who is taking pseudoephedrine orally to treat allergic rhinitis. The nurse
should assess for which of the following
potential adverse effects of this medication?
O Polyuria
0 Increased appetite
O Bradycardia
0 Hypertension
Hypertension
Pseudoephedrine is a sympathomimetic medication that stimulates alpha- and beta-adrenergic
receptors and causes systemic vasoconstriction. Therefore, the nurse should monitor the client's
blood pressure and report hypertension to the provider.
Polyuria is not an adverse effect of pseudoephedrine. This medication can cause painful urination
because of its effect on smooth muscle of the bladder, which results in contraction of the urinary
sphincter. Increased appetite is not an adverse effect of pseudoephedrine. This medication can cause
anorexia, nausea, vomiting, and dry mouth. The nurse should encourage clients who take
pseudoephedrine to chew sugarless gum and consume fluids frequently. Bradycardia is not an adverse
effect of pseudoephedrine. This medication can cause tachycardia due to sympathomimetic effects.
The nurse should instruct the client to monitor and report palpitations, nervousness, or breathing
difficulties.
A nurse is reviewing the medication list of a client who has a new prescription for clopidogrel after
undergoing coronary artery stenting. Which of
the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?
O The client is taking acetaminophen.
O The client is taking valerian.
O The client is taking vitamin 35.
O The client is taking ginkgo biloba.
The client is taking ginkgo biloba.
Ginkgo biloba is an herbal supplement that might help improve memory and decrease intermittent
claudication. It can suppress coagulation; therefore, it interacts adversely with clopidogrel by
2|Page
,increasing the risk for bleeding. Other herbal supplements that interact with clopidogrel include
chamomile, feverfew, and ginseng.
Acetaminophen, a nonopioid analgesic, increases the risk of bleeding when clients take it concurrently
with warfarin; however, acetaminophen does not interact adversely with clopidogrel. Valerian is an
herbal supplement that helps reduce anxiety and promote sleep. It can increase CNS depression when
clients take it concurrently with benzodiazepines, opioids, or centrally acting skeletal muscle
relaxants; however, valerian does not interact adversely with clopidogrel. Vitamin B6, or pyridoxine, is
a water-soluble vitamin that plays a role in fat, protein, and carbohydrate metabolism. Pyridoxine
decreases the effects of levodopa, although taking the combination of levodopa with carbidopa
counteracts this effect. However, clopidogrel does not interact adversely with vitamin B6.
A nurse is providing teaching to a client who is scheduled to receive chemotherapy and has a
prescription for ondansetron to control nausea and
vomiting. Which of the following information should the nurse include in the teaching?
O Restlessness is an expected adverse effect of the medication.
0 Take the medication 30 min after chemotherapy.
0 Acute nausea resolves within 12 hr of chemotherapy administration.
0 Additional medications can be required.
Additional medications can be required.
Combinations of antiemetics are usually more effective than single-medication therapy at managing
chemotherapy-induced nausea and vomiting. The combination of a serotonin antagonist, such as
ondansetron, with a corticosteroid, such as dexamethasone, can be highly effective in preventing
chemotherapy-induced nausea and vomiting.
Ondansetron, a serotonin receptor antagonist, can cause fatigue, dizziness, and drowsiness. The nurse
should instruct the client that fall risk increases due to these adverse effects. Clients should receive
ondansetron, a serotonin receptor antagonist, 30 min prior to the start of chemotherapy to reduce
the risk for chemotherapy-induced nausea and vomiting. Following the initial dose, ondansetron 4 hr
and 8 hr post chemotherapy continues its antiemetic effects. The nurse should inform the client that
acute chemotherapy-induced nausea and vomiting can begin within minutes of the start of
chemotherapy administration and can last up to 1 week. The use of ondansetron and other
antiemetics should continue prophylactically, even when chemotherapy-induced nausea and vomiting
seem under control.
A nurse is reviewing the medical history of a client who has a new diagnosis of diabetes mellitus and is
asking about taking metformin. Which of
the following client conditions should the nurse identify as a contraindication for this medication?
O A history of migraine headaches
0 Alcohol use disorder
0 A history of peptic ulcer disease
0 Tobacco use
3|Page
, Alcohol use disorder.
Metformin can inhibit the breakdown of lactic acid, causing life-threatening lactic acidosis. The nurse
should identify alcohol use disorder as a contraindication because alcohol further inhibits the
breakdown of lactic acid.
Migraine headaches are not a contraindication for metformin therapy. Metformin does not cause CNS
effects, but it can cause a vitamin B12 deficiency with long term use. A rare complication is lactic
acidosis. Metformin can have several gastrointestinal adverse effects, including nausea, vomiting,
diarrhea, anorexia, and abdominal bloating; however, peptic ulcer disease is not a contraindication for
metformin therapy. A history of tobacco use is not a contraindication for metformin therapy.
However, tobacco cessation is essential for clients who have diabetes because the vasoconstrictive
effect of tobacco products increases the risk for cardiovascular disease, stroke, peripheral neuropathy,
and kidney disease.
A nurse is preparing to administer morphine 0.3 mglkg PO to a school-age child who weighs 88 lb.
Available is morphine oral solution 2 mglmL.
How many mL should the nurse administer? (Round the answer to the nearest whole number. Use a
leading zero if it applies. Do not use a trailing
zero.)
6
A nurse receives a verbal prescription from the provider for hydrochlorothiazide 25 mg by mouth daily
for a client who has hypertension. Which of
the following indicates how the nurse should transcribe the prescription in the client's medical record?
O Hydrochlorothiazide 25.0 mg orally q.d.
O Hydrochlorothiazide 25 mg PO daily
0 HCTZ 25.0 mg by mouth daily
0 HCIZ 25 mg PO OD
Hydrochlorothiazide 25 mg PO daily
A nurse is assessing a client who is taking ethinyl estradiol and norethindrone for contraception. Which
of the following manifestations should the
nurse identify as a potential adverse effect of this medication combination?
O Weight loss
0 Easy bruising
0 Low blood pressure
0 Breakthrough bleeding
Breakthrough bleeding.
Combination oral contraceptives can cause breakthrough bleeding and spotting during the menstrual
cycle. Although breakthrough bleeding often resolves within 3 months, the provider can increase the
4|Page
BANK 2024-2025 WITH ACTUAL CORRECT
QUESTIONS AND VERIFIED DETAILED
ANSWERS |FREQUENTLY TESTED
QUESTIONS AND SOLUTIONS |ALREADY
GRADED A+|BRAND NEW |GUARANTEED
PASS |LATEST UPDATE
A nurse is caring for a client who is receiving heparin by continuous IV infusion for treatment of venous
thrombosis. Which of the following
laboratory values should the nurse monitor for in order to titrate the heparin dose?
O Platelet function assay
0 aPTT
O INR
O Amylase
aPTT
A nurse is assessing a client who is receiving IV furosemide for peripheral edema. Which of the following
findings should the nurse identify as an
indication that the client is developing dehydration?
O BUN 18 mg/dL
O Urine output of 240 mL in a 12—hr period
0 Weight loss of 0.61 Kg (1.34 lb) in 24 hr
0 Blood pressure 100/70 mm Hg
Urine output of 240 mL in a 12—hr period
The nurse should identify that a urinary output of 240 mL in a 12-hr period (20 mL/hr) indicates
oliguria. The nurse should recognize that oliguria is a manifestation of dehydration and should be
reported to the provider. The nurse should continue to monitor the client for other manifestations of
1|Page
,dehydration such as dry mouth, hypotension, and excessive thirst.
A BUN of 18 mg/dL is within the expected reference range of 10 to 20 mg/dL. An increased BUN is an
indication of hypovolemia. Weight loss of 0.61 kg (1.34 lb) is a therapeutic effect for a client who is
receiving IV furosemide. However, weight loss of greater than 1 kg (2.2 lb) in 24 hr can indicate
dehydration. Although hypotension is a potential adverse effect of IV furosemide, the nurse should
recognize that a BP of 100/70 mm Hg is within the expected reference range. Hypotension is a
manifestation of dehydration that occurs when the systolic blood pressure falls below 90 mm Hg.
A nurse is caring for a client who is taking pseudoephedrine orally to treat allergic rhinitis. The nurse
should assess for which of the following
potential adverse effects of this medication?
O Polyuria
0 Increased appetite
O Bradycardia
0 Hypertension
Hypertension
Pseudoephedrine is a sympathomimetic medication that stimulates alpha- and beta-adrenergic
receptors and causes systemic vasoconstriction. Therefore, the nurse should monitor the client's
blood pressure and report hypertension to the provider.
Polyuria is not an adverse effect of pseudoephedrine. This medication can cause painful urination
because of its effect on smooth muscle of the bladder, which results in contraction of the urinary
sphincter. Increased appetite is not an adverse effect of pseudoephedrine. This medication can cause
anorexia, nausea, vomiting, and dry mouth. The nurse should encourage clients who take
pseudoephedrine to chew sugarless gum and consume fluids frequently. Bradycardia is not an adverse
effect of pseudoephedrine. This medication can cause tachycardia due to sympathomimetic effects.
The nurse should instruct the client to monitor and report palpitations, nervousness, or breathing
difficulties.
A nurse is reviewing the medication list of a client who has a new prescription for clopidogrel after
undergoing coronary artery stenting. Which of
the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?
O The client is taking acetaminophen.
O The client is taking valerian.
O The client is taking vitamin 35.
O The client is taking ginkgo biloba.
The client is taking ginkgo biloba.
Ginkgo biloba is an herbal supplement that might help improve memory and decrease intermittent
claudication. It can suppress coagulation; therefore, it interacts adversely with clopidogrel by
2|Page
,increasing the risk for bleeding. Other herbal supplements that interact with clopidogrel include
chamomile, feverfew, and ginseng.
Acetaminophen, a nonopioid analgesic, increases the risk of bleeding when clients take it concurrently
with warfarin; however, acetaminophen does not interact adversely with clopidogrel. Valerian is an
herbal supplement that helps reduce anxiety and promote sleep. It can increase CNS depression when
clients take it concurrently with benzodiazepines, opioids, or centrally acting skeletal muscle
relaxants; however, valerian does not interact adversely with clopidogrel. Vitamin B6, or pyridoxine, is
a water-soluble vitamin that plays a role in fat, protein, and carbohydrate metabolism. Pyridoxine
decreases the effects of levodopa, although taking the combination of levodopa with carbidopa
counteracts this effect. However, clopidogrel does not interact adversely with vitamin B6.
A nurse is providing teaching to a client who is scheduled to receive chemotherapy and has a
prescription for ondansetron to control nausea and
vomiting. Which of the following information should the nurse include in the teaching?
O Restlessness is an expected adverse effect of the medication.
0 Take the medication 30 min after chemotherapy.
0 Acute nausea resolves within 12 hr of chemotherapy administration.
0 Additional medications can be required.
Additional medications can be required.
Combinations of antiemetics are usually more effective than single-medication therapy at managing
chemotherapy-induced nausea and vomiting. The combination of a serotonin antagonist, such as
ondansetron, with a corticosteroid, such as dexamethasone, can be highly effective in preventing
chemotherapy-induced nausea and vomiting.
Ondansetron, a serotonin receptor antagonist, can cause fatigue, dizziness, and drowsiness. The nurse
should instruct the client that fall risk increases due to these adverse effects. Clients should receive
ondansetron, a serotonin receptor antagonist, 30 min prior to the start of chemotherapy to reduce
the risk for chemotherapy-induced nausea and vomiting. Following the initial dose, ondansetron 4 hr
and 8 hr post chemotherapy continues its antiemetic effects. The nurse should inform the client that
acute chemotherapy-induced nausea and vomiting can begin within minutes of the start of
chemotherapy administration and can last up to 1 week. The use of ondansetron and other
antiemetics should continue prophylactically, even when chemotherapy-induced nausea and vomiting
seem under control.
A nurse is reviewing the medical history of a client who has a new diagnosis of diabetes mellitus and is
asking about taking metformin. Which of
the following client conditions should the nurse identify as a contraindication for this medication?
O A history of migraine headaches
0 Alcohol use disorder
0 A history of peptic ulcer disease
0 Tobacco use
3|Page
, Alcohol use disorder.
Metformin can inhibit the breakdown of lactic acid, causing life-threatening lactic acidosis. The nurse
should identify alcohol use disorder as a contraindication because alcohol further inhibits the
breakdown of lactic acid.
Migraine headaches are not a contraindication for metformin therapy. Metformin does not cause CNS
effects, but it can cause a vitamin B12 deficiency with long term use. A rare complication is lactic
acidosis. Metformin can have several gastrointestinal adverse effects, including nausea, vomiting,
diarrhea, anorexia, and abdominal bloating; however, peptic ulcer disease is not a contraindication for
metformin therapy. A history of tobacco use is not a contraindication for metformin therapy.
However, tobacco cessation is essential for clients who have diabetes because the vasoconstrictive
effect of tobacco products increases the risk for cardiovascular disease, stroke, peripheral neuropathy,
and kidney disease.
A nurse is preparing to administer morphine 0.3 mglkg PO to a school-age child who weighs 88 lb.
Available is morphine oral solution 2 mglmL.
How many mL should the nurse administer? (Round the answer to the nearest whole number. Use a
leading zero if it applies. Do not use a trailing
zero.)
6
A nurse receives a verbal prescription from the provider for hydrochlorothiazide 25 mg by mouth daily
for a client who has hypertension. Which of
the following indicates how the nurse should transcribe the prescription in the client's medical record?
O Hydrochlorothiazide 25.0 mg orally q.d.
O Hydrochlorothiazide 25 mg PO daily
0 HCTZ 25.0 mg by mouth daily
0 HCIZ 25 mg PO OD
Hydrochlorothiazide 25 mg PO daily
A nurse is assessing a client who is taking ethinyl estradiol and norethindrone for contraception. Which
of the following manifestations should the
nurse identify as a potential adverse effect of this medication combination?
O Weight loss
0 Easy bruising
0 Low blood pressure
0 Breakthrough bleeding
Breakthrough bleeding.
Combination oral contraceptives can cause breakthrough bleeding and spotting during the menstrual
cycle. Although breakthrough bleeding often resolves within 3 months, the provider can increase the
4|Page
