d120 questions
The advanced practice registered nurse (APRN) is performing a bimanual
pelvic examination on a 30-year-old female patient. The APRN will be
checking the patient's cervix for cervical motion tenderness and explains this
to the patient.
Which condition is the APRN evaluating in this patient?
Pelvic infection or inflammation
A 17-year-old female is being seen in the clinic for a wellness visit. The patient
tells the advanced practice registered nurse (APRN) that she is currently
sexually active, has a history of three different partners, does not routinely use
condoms, had a normal menstrual cycle the week before, and denies any
complaints.
Which testing should the APRN provide for this patient?
STI test
A 67-year-old woman asks the advanced practice registered nurse (APRN)
when her next Pap smear should be performed. The APRN notes that the
client has had three consecutive negative cytology results.
Which schedule should the APRN recommend for this patient?
Ongoing cervical cytology is not necessary
A 21-year-old female patient presents to the clinic for a routine exam and asks
the advanced practice registered nurse (APRN) about the frequency
recommended for a Papanicolaou (Pap) smear.
Which recommendation should the APRN share with this patient?
Every three years
A 32-year-old female presents to the clinic as a new patient to establish care
and complains of vague symptoms of abdominal fullness and bloating. On the
rectovaginal exam, the advanced practice registered nurse (APRN) notes a
solid, irregular, and fixed pelvic mass.
Which cancer diagnosis should the APRN make for this patient?
Ovarian
, A 26-year-old female patient presents to the clinic with complaints of
abdominal pain, vaginal discharge, and vaginal pruritis. The advanced
practice registered nurse (APRN) performs a pelvic exam, including pH tape
test and wet mount. The APRN notes a vaginal pH of 6.2 and visualizes ovoid,
flagellated organisms under the microscopy.
What should the APRN diagnose?
Trichomoniasis
A 28-year-old woman presents to clinic with complaints of painful vulvar
ulcerations. After further evaluation, the advanced practice registered nurse
(APRN) diagnoses the client with herpes simplex virus.
Which education should the APRN provide to the patient for this condition?
Daily suppressive therapy should be used for 10 or more occurrences per
year.
An advanced practice registered nurse (APRN) is treating a female patient
with bacterial vaginitis.
Which action should be included in the plan of care?
Metronidazole 500 mg orally twice a day for seven days
A patient presents to the primary clinic complaining of a foul smelling vaginal
discharge that worsens before menses and after intercourse. The advanced
practice registered nurse (APRN) assesses the patient's diagnostic tests
which reveals a vaginal pH >4.5, positive whiff test, and clue cells on wet prep.
A diagnosis of bacterial vaginosis is confirmed.
Which treatment regimen should the APRN use with this patient?
Metronidazole 500 mg PO bid for seven days
A female patient presents to the primary care clinic complaining of lower
abdominal pain, abnormal menses, and difficulty urinating. The advanced
practice nurse (APRN) performed a pelvic examination that revealed cervical
motion tenderness (CMT) with purulent discharge. A diagnosis of gonorrhea is
confirmed. The APRN prescribes ceftriaxone 250 mg IM; however, the
medication is unavailable. Which alternative treatment regimen should the
APRN use for this patient?
Gentamicin 240 mg IM plus azithromycin 2 g orally once
The advanced practice registered nurse (APRN) is performing a bimanual
pelvic examination on a 30-year-old female patient. The APRN will be
checking the patient's cervix for cervical motion tenderness and explains this
to the patient.
Which condition is the APRN evaluating in this patient?
Pelvic infection or inflammation
A 17-year-old female is being seen in the clinic for a wellness visit. The patient
tells the advanced practice registered nurse (APRN) that she is currently
sexually active, has a history of three different partners, does not routinely use
condoms, had a normal menstrual cycle the week before, and denies any
complaints.
Which testing should the APRN provide for this patient?
STI test
A 67-year-old woman asks the advanced practice registered nurse (APRN)
when her next Pap smear should be performed. The APRN notes that the
client has had three consecutive negative cytology results.
Which schedule should the APRN recommend for this patient?
Ongoing cervical cytology is not necessary
A 21-year-old female patient presents to the clinic for a routine exam and asks
the advanced practice registered nurse (APRN) about the frequency
recommended for a Papanicolaou (Pap) smear.
Which recommendation should the APRN share with this patient?
Every three years
A 32-year-old female presents to the clinic as a new patient to establish care
and complains of vague symptoms of abdominal fullness and bloating. On the
rectovaginal exam, the advanced practice registered nurse (APRN) notes a
solid, irregular, and fixed pelvic mass.
Which cancer diagnosis should the APRN make for this patient?
Ovarian
, A 26-year-old female patient presents to the clinic with complaints of
abdominal pain, vaginal discharge, and vaginal pruritis. The advanced
practice registered nurse (APRN) performs a pelvic exam, including pH tape
test and wet mount. The APRN notes a vaginal pH of 6.2 and visualizes ovoid,
flagellated organisms under the microscopy.
What should the APRN diagnose?
Trichomoniasis
A 28-year-old woman presents to clinic with complaints of painful vulvar
ulcerations. After further evaluation, the advanced practice registered nurse
(APRN) diagnoses the client with herpes simplex virus.
Which education should the APRN provide to the patient for this condition?
Daily suppressive therapy should be used for 10 or more occurrences per
year.
An advanced practice registered nurse (APRN) is treating a female patient
with bacterial vaginitis.
Which action should be included in the plan of care?
Metronidazole 500 mg orally twice a day for seven days
A patient presents to the primary clinic complaining of a foul smelling vaginal
discharge that worsens before menses and after intercourse. The advanced
practice registered nurse (APRN) assesses the patient's diagnostic tests
which reveals a vaginal pH >4.5, positive whiff test, and clue cells on wet prep.
A diagnosis of bacterial vaginosis is confirmed.
Which treatment regimen should the APRN use with this patient?
Metronidazole 500 mg PO bid for seven days
A female patient presents to the primary care clinic complaining of lower
abdominal pain, abnormal menses, and difficulty urinating. The advanced
practice nurse (APRN) performed a pelvic examination that revealed cervical
motion tenderness (CMT) with purulent discharge. A diagnosis of gonorrhea is
confirmed. The APRN prescribes ceftriaxone 250 mg IM; however, the
medication is unavailable. Which alternative treatment regimen should the
APRN use for this patient?
Gentamicin 240 mg IM plus azithromycin 2 g orally once
