TESTING AND FREQUENTLY TESTED EXAM VERSIONS
WITH ACCURATE REAL EXAM QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS
WITH RATIONALES AND A STUDY GUIDE
What are the components of the anterior arch of the pelvic ring? - CORRECT ANSWER The
anterior arch is in front of the acetabular surface and includes the pubic rami and the symphyseal
joint
A. The iliac wings and sacral bodies
B. The pubic rami and the symphyseal joint
C. The sacral ala and sacrospinous ligaments
D. The acetabular dome and femoral head
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The anterior arch is the front portion of the pelvic ring and is formed by the pubic
rami plus the pubic symphysis (symphyseal joint).
What is the symphyseal joint? - CORRECT ANSWER The line of union of the bodies of the
pubic bones in the median plane. See page 157 of the dictionary
A. The articulation between sacrum and ilium
B. The line of union of the bodies of the pubic bones in the median plane
C. The joint between the acetabulum and femoral head
D. The junction between ischium and ilium
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The symphysis pubis is the midline union of the pubic bodies—exactly the “line of
union” described.
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,The pelvis is divided into two anatomical structures for AIS coding. What are those two
structures? - CORRECT ANSWER The pelvic ring and the acetabulum. Fractures to the pelvic
ring are only given one fracture code. The acetabulum may be assigned to fracture codes
depending upon whether the entry is unilateral or bilateral
A. Ilium and sacrum
B. Pubis and ischium
C. Pelvic ring and acetabulum
D. Anterior arch and posterior arch
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: AIS treats pelvic ring and acetabulum as separate structures for coding; pelvic ring
fractures get one fracture code, acetabulum may need unilateral/bilateral consideration.
How many AIS codes are given to the patient who has a fracture in the pelvic ring and a
fractured acetabulum? - CORRECT ANSWER At least two and possibly three depending on the
fracture in the acetabulum.
A. One code total
B. Exactly two codes
C. At least two and possibly three
D. One code per pelvic bone fractured
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Pelvic ring fracture is coded once, and acetabulum may require one or two codes (e.g.,
unilateral vs bilateral patterns), creating 2–3 total.
The severity of a pelvic ring fracture is directly related to what? - CORRECT ANSWER The
extent of damage to the posterior arch.
A. The number of pubic ramus fractures
B. The extent of damage to the posterior arch
C. The presence of acetabular involvement
D. Whether the fracture is on the left or right side
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,Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Posterior arch osteoligamentous integrity determines stability; more posterior
disruption = higher severity.
What is a stable pelvic fracture? - CORRECT ANSWER 1. stable: fracture does not involve the
posterior arch; pelvic floor is intact and able to withstand normal physiological stresses without
displacement
A. Any pelvic fracture with no blood loss
B. Fracture does not involve the posterior arch; pelvic floor intact and withstands physiologic
stresses without displacement
C. Complete disruption of SI ligaments with pelvic floor disruption
D. Any open pelvic fracture
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Stability in AIS pelvic ring fractures hinges on posterior arch not being involved and
intact pelvic floor support.
What is a partially stable pelvic fracture? - CORRECT ANSWER Posterior Osteoligamentous
integrity is partially maintained and the pelvic floor is intact
A. Posterior osteoligamentous integrity is partially maintained and the pelvic floor is intact
B. Posterior arch is completely disrupted
C. Only anterior arch is fractured with no ligament injury
D. Any pelvic fracture associated with acetabular fracture
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: “Partially stable” means some posterior support remains and pelvic floor is still intact.
What is an unstable pelvic fracture? - CORRECT ANSWER Complete loss of posterior
osteoligamentous integrity; pelvic floor disrupted
A. Only pubic rami fractures with intact posterior arch
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, B. Complete loss of posterior osteoligamentous integrity; pelvic floor disrupted
C. Open book fracture with intact posterior ligaments
D. Isolated acetabular fracture
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Unstable pelvic fractures require complete posterior disruption with pelvic floor
disruption—true mechanical instability.
For patients who die before any rads are done and there is no autopsy, if a doctor diagnoses a
pelvic fracture based on detecting obvious instability, what code should be used? - CORRECT
ANSWER Pelvic ring fracture NFS
A. Stable pelvic ring fracture
B. Unstable pelvic ring fracture with blood loss >20%
C. Pelvic ring fracture NFS
D. Acetabular fracture NFS
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Without imaging/autopsy confirmation of pattern and specifics, AIS coding defaults
conservatively to NFS for pelvic ring fracture.
True or false - an open book fracture of the pelvis is an unstable fracture - CORRECT ANSWER
False--an open book fracture is an example under the partially unstable fracture descriptors.
A. True
B. False
C. True only if there is a pubic symphysis separation
D. False only if acetabulum is intact
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: In AIS descriptors, open book fractures are categorized under partially unstable
(partially stable/unstable descriptors), not totally unstable by default.
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