AACN PCCN EXAM QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS LATEST 2024/2025 (GRADED)

AACN PCCN EXAM QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS LATEST 2024/2025 (GRADED) who is at risk for MDRO infection - Answerpatients with severe disease, including compromised host defenses from underlying medical conditions, recent surgery, or indwelling medical devices (ex: foleys or ET tubes) what are classic signs of cardiac tamponade? - Answerhypotension, narrowing pulse pressure, tachycardia with weak, thready pulse, and tachypnea what arrhythmia is mitral valve insufficiency associated with? - Answerafib what defines oliguira? - Answerless than 500 ml of output per day what does renal failure result in? - Answeracidosis what type of HF are patients with OSA at risk for? - Answerright-sided HF what is one of the hallmark features of pancreatitis? - Answerdehydration what is treatment for pancreatitis? - Answerhydration, maintenance of electrolyte balance, nutritional support what is unstable angina characterized by? - Answernew onset pain or increase in frequency/duration of pain. pain generally lasts 15-30 minutes. may be experienced at low exertion or rest and pain tends not to respond to SL nitro. symptoms may be accompanied by diaphoresis or dyspnea. what is stable angina characterized by? - Answerpain on exertion or stress that is relieved by rest or SL Nitro. pain generally does not increase in severity over time what characterizes an acute MI? - Answerconstant, severe pain and may be accompanied by nausea, weakness, fatigue, anxiety. not relieved with rest, duration exceeds 30 minutes. what are characteristics of dissection aortic aneurysm? - Answerpain is severe and unrelenting, commonly experienced in chest/abdomen and radiates to the back. pain does not improve spontaneously. what procedure is most appropriate for obtaining heart pressure measurements and diagnosing pulmonary HTN? - Answerright sided heart cath what is the best noninvasive test for pulmonary HTN? - Answertransthoracic echocardiogram what is a reasonable goal for the first day Blood Pressure in a stroke patient? - Answerlower by 15-20% in the first day what may improve the prognosis of patients with stroke? - Answerlowering body temp what are the causes of afib in post-cardiac surgery patients? - Answeradvanced age, AACN PCCN EXAM QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS LATEST 2024/2025 (GRADED) pre-existing medical or cardiac conditions, electrolyte abnormalities, conduction disturbances that wil likely resolve, and pre-existing atrial or valve conditions that contribute to the development of this arrythmia what is a life threatening condition that most commonly occurs with renal dysfunction? - Answerhyperkalemia what medication is contraindicated in RV infarct? - Answernitro bc it will reduce preload, and patients with RV infarct are preload dependent what are the manifestations of hepatic encephalopathy? - Answerchanges in mental state, behavior, personality, decreased self-care ability, deterioration of handwriting, or loss of other small movements, and asterixis ("liver flaps") what are the manifestations of cerebral edema? - Answerdecreased LOC, bradycardia, HTN, bradypnea, posturing, unequal pupils, decreased pupillary reaction to light what are impending delirium tremens manifested by? - Answertremors, irritability, n/v, hallucinations (auditory, visual, or olfactory), confusion, delusions, and severe agitation what is impending azotemia manifested by? - Answertachycardia, hypotension, and signs of dehydration what is hyponatremia associated with? - AnswerSIADH what are neuro complications of hyponatremia? - AnswerHA, nausea, vomiting, lethargy, coma, seizure what is common with sepsis ? - AnswerDIC what is common in patients with DIC? - Answerjaundice due to increased bilirubin production secondary to hemolysis what type of cardiomyopathy in pt with LV having increased muscle mass and fibrosis causing stiffness? - Answerhypertrophic what defines mild COPD exacerbation? - Answernot requiring mechanical ventilation and having only one of the three cardinal symptoms: increased dyspnea, sputum purulence or sputum production what test should NOT be performed during most COPD exacerbations? - Answersputum culture what does management of cardiogenic shock include? - Answerdecreasing afterload (because CO is greatly diminished) treat with ASA IV heparin infusion bc at risk for LV ventricular and DV thrombosis and maintains coronary artery patency what dysrhythmia is associated with chronic alcohol abuse? - Answerafib what can trigger afib? - Answerhypoglycemia, surgery, chronic infections, binge drinking what are the main complications from ETOH abuse? - Answercardiomyopathy, atrial and ventricular dysrhythmias, variant angina a patient with life threatening hyperkalemia is likely experiencing - Answermetabolic acidosis to maintain physiologic pH during acidosis, hydrogen ions are driven from the blood and into the cell. to maintain electrical neutrality, potassium is expelled from the cell and serum potassium levels rise what EKG changes with hyperkalemia? - Answerthe earliest EKG change seen with hyperkalemia is peaked T waves. this can progress to widened QRS complexes and Vfib position for patients with acute ischemic stroke? - Answeras flat as possible in bed for at least 24 hours from stroke onset, ideally with HOB between 0 to 30 degrees. some patients with acute ischemic stroke may develop increased ischemic symptoms upon standing, sitting, or elevating HOB due to reduction flow thru stenotic vessels or collateral pathways what is one of most important cornerstones in management of patients with moderate to severe burn injury? - Answernutrition. the hypermetabolic response in burn patients is characterized by hyperdynamic circulatory, physiologic, catabolic, and immune system responses. the administration of specific nutrients is an essential component of the management of the patient what are the mechanisms for pulmonary HTN? - Answerexcessive pulmonary blood flow, impeded pulmonary drainage, vasoconstriction from hypoxia or uncompensated hypercarbia, or hindered blood flow thru the pulmonary arteries