And Answers
The minimum necessary rule is based on sound current practice that protected health
information should NOT be used or disclosed when it is not necessary to satisfy a
particular purpose or carry out a function. What does this mean?
a. Staff members are allowed to access any medical record without restriction
b. Providers should develop safeguards to prevent unauthorized access to protected
health information.
c. Practices should only provide minimum necessary information to patients.
d. All of the above. - correct answer --b. Providers should develop safeguards to
prevent unauthorized access to protected health information.
EHR stands for:
a. Electronic health record
b. Extended health record
c. Electronic health response
d. Established health record - correct answer --a. Electronic health record
The AAPC offers over 500 local chapters across the country for the purpose of
a. Continuing education and networking
b. Membership dues
c. Regulations and bylaws
d. Financial management - correct answer --a. Continuing education and networking
What does the abbreviation MAC stand for?
a. Medicaid Alert Contractor
b. Medicare Advisory Contractor
c. Medicare Administrative Contractor
d. Medicaid Administrative Contractor - correct answer --c. Medicare Administrative
Contractor
The OIG recommends that provider practices enforce disciplinary actions through well
publicized compliance guidelines to ensure actions that are ______.
,a. Permanent
b. Consistent and appropriate
c. Frequent
d. Swift and enforceable - correct answer --b. Consistent and appropriate
Through which vessel is oxygenated blood returned to the heart from the lungs?
a. Pulmonary vein
b. Bronchial vein
c. Pulmonary artery
d. Bronchial artery - correct answer --a. Pulmonary vein
Muscle is attached to bone by what method?
a. Tendons, ligaments, and directly to bone
b. Tendons, aponeurosis, and directly to bone
c. Ligaments, aponeurosis, and directly to bone
d. Tendons and cartilage - correct answer --b. Tendons, aponeurosis, and directly to
bone
Lacrimal glands are responsible for which of the following?
a. Production of tears
b. Production of vitreous
c. Production of mydriatic agents
d. Production of zonules - correct answer --a. Production of tears
Melasma is defined as:
a. Lines where the skin has been stretched
b. A discharge of mucus and blood
c. A dark vertical line appearing on the abdomen
d. Brownish pigmentation appearing on the face - correct answer --d. Brownish
pigmentation appearing on the face
A gonioscopy is an examination of what part of the eye:
a. Anterior chamber of the eye
b. Lacrimal duct
c. Interior surface of the eye
d. Posterior segment - correct answer --a. Anterior chamber of the eye
What type of code is assigned when the provider documents the reason for a patient
seeking healthcare services that is not for an injury or disease?
a. Non-specific code
,b. External cause code (V00-Y99)
c. Z code (Z00-Z99)
d. ICD-10-PCS - correct answer --c. Z code (Z00-Z99)
What is the ICD-10-CM code for hay fever? - correct answer --J30.1
What is the ICD-10-CM code for swine flu?
a. J10.1
b. A08.4
c. J11.1
d. J09.X2 - correct answer --d. J09.X2
What ICD-10-CM code(s) is/are reported for enlargement of the prostate with a
symptom of urinary retention?
a. N40.1
b. N40.3, R33.8
c. N40.0
d. N40.1, R33.8 - correct answer --d. N40.1, R33.8
What diagnosis code(s) is/are reported for behavioral disturbances in a patient with
early onset Alzheimer's?
a. G30.8, F02.81
b. F02.81
c. F02.81, G30.0
d. G30.0, F02.81 - correct answer --d. G30.0, F02.81
What is the ICD-10-CM code for a patient with postoperative anemia due to acute blood
loss during the surgery who needs a blood transfusion?
a. D64.9
b. D53.0
c. D50.0
d. D62 - correct answer --d. D62
A 54-year-old male goes to his primary care provider with dizziness. On physical exam
his blood pressure is 200/130. After a complete work-up, including laboratory tests, the
provider makes a diagnosis of end stage renal disease and hypertension. What are the
appropriate diagnosis codes for this encounter?
a. I12.0, N18.6
b. I10, N18.6
c. I10, N18.9
d. I12.0 - correct answer --a. I12.0, N18.6
, A 32-year-old male was seen in the ambulatory surgery center ASC for removal of two
lipomas. One was located on his back and the other was located on the right forearm.
Both involved subcutaneous tissue. What ICD-10-CM code(s) is/are reported?
a. D17.30
b. D17.39
c. D17.1, D17.23
d. D17.21, D17.1 - correct answer --d. D17.21, D17.1
A 33-year-old patient visits his primary care provider to discuss a lap band procedure for
his morbid obesity. His caloric intake is in excess of 4,000 calories per day and his BMI
is currently 45. What ICD-10-CM code(s) is/are reported?
a. E66.01, Z68.42
b. E66.3, Z68.45
c. E66.01
d. E66.01, Z68.45 - correct answer --a. E66.01, Z68.42
A 58-year-old patient sees the provider for confusion and loss of memory. The provider
diagnoses the patient with early onset stages of Alzheimer's disease with dementia.
What ICD-10-CM codes are reported?
a. F02.80, G30.0, F29, F41.3
b. G30.0, F02.80
c. F02.80, G30.0
d. G30.0, F02.80, F29, R41.3 - correct answer --b. G30.0, F02.80
What would be considered an adverse effect?
a. Shortness of breath when running
b. Rash developing when taking penicillin
c. Hemorrhaging after a vaginal delivery
d. Wound infection after surgery - correct answer --b. Rash developing when taking
penicillin
What is a TRUE statement in reporting pressure ulcers?
a. When a pressure ulcer is at on stage and progresses to the higher stage, report the
lowest stage for that site.
b. Two codes are assigned when a patient is admitted with a pressure ulcer that evolves
to another stage during the admission.
c. When documentation does not provide the stage of the pressure ulcer, report the
unstageable pressure ulcer code(L89.95).