Phi Beta Sigma Exam With Complete Solution Graded A+

Phi Beta Sigma Exam With Complete Solution Graded A+ The Phi Beta Sigma was founde1. What electrolyte change can occur if you leave a blood sample sitting too long with red blood cells (RBCs) in contact with the serum? A - Phosphorus increases B - Bicarbonate decreases C - Potassium decreases D - Sodium increases A. Phosphorus increases 2. A client brings in her dog who ate a box of rat poison in the last 2 days. What symptoms would be expected? A - Bleeding, weakness B - Seizures, vomiting C - Unconscious, rapid heartrate D - Severe pain, depression A. Bleeding, weakness 3. Which color is a gram-positive bacteria on the microscopic slide? A - Red B - Blue C - Orange D - Green B. Blue 4. What lab result would you expect to find in a cat with Diabetes mellitus? A - Increased urine glucose; Decreased blood glucose B - Low urine glucose; Normal blood glucose C - Increased urine glucose, Increased blood glucose D - Urinary infection; Low blood glucose C. Increased urine glucose, increased blood glucose 5. Which forceps secure drapes to the patient by penetrating the skin? A - Backhaus B - Roeder C - Brown-Adson D - Crile A. Backhaus 6. A rare Albanian hairy iguana has been prescribed "Iggy-cote" medicated shampoo q.o.d. for dandruff. How often does the iguana get treated? A - Once a day B - Four times a day C - Every other day D - As needed C. Every other day 7. Which two white blood cells are phagocytic (eat foreign cells and material by engulfing them). A - B-Lymphocyte, Eosinophil B - Monocyte, Neutrophil C - Basophil, Lymphocyte D - Neutrophil, Thrombocyte B. Monocyte, neutrophil What is a band neutrophil? A - An old neutrophil B - Immature neutrophil C - A depleted neutrophil D - A toxic neutrophil E - A neutrophil that plays the drums B. Immature neutrophil 9. How do you prevent laryngospasm in cats before inducing anesthesia? A - Pre-medicate with acepromazine B - 1-2% Lidocaine spray C - Pre-medicate with atropine or glycopyrrolate D - Avoid halothane B - 1-2% Lidocaine spray 10. Which term describes inflammation of the testicle? A - Orchitis B - Phimosis C - Phlebitis D - Cryptorchid A - Orchitis 11. Which choice is often used in combination with ketamine or thiopental to induce anesthesia in horses? A - Halothane B - Phenobarbital C - Naloxone D - Guaifenesin D. Guaifenesin 12. What does it mean if a cat is azotemic? A - Blood urea nitrogen (BUN) is increased B - Blood urea nitrogen (BUN) is decreased C - Creatinine is high D - Sodium-Potassium ratio is too low A. Blood urea nitrogen (BUN) is increased 14. Which drug can reverse the effects of xylazine (alpha2-adrenergic agonist with analgesic and sedative effects)? A - Yohimbine B - Pralidoxime C - Atropine D - Diazepam (Valium®) A. Yohimbine 15. Which one of the following dog breeds is classified as brachycephalic? A - Golden retriever B - Greyhound C - English bull dog D - Great Dane C. English Bull dog 16. Which kind of tissue causes the most x-ray scatter? A - Thick body parts B - Thin body parts C - Joints 8 cm thick or less D - Delicate bone, like nasal area A. Thick body parts 17. You are called to a farm to help do a routine dental exam and float the teeth of an 8-year old Standardbred mare. What parts get filed down with the rasp when a horse gets its teeth floated? A - Lingual aspect-upper molar arcade, Buccal aspect-lower molar arcade B - Buccal aspect-upper molar arcade, rostral points of wolf teeth C - Lingual aspect-upper molar arcade, Lingual aspect-lower molar arcade D - Buccal aspect-upper molar arcade, Buccal aspect-lower molar arcade E - Buccal aspect-upper molar arcade, Lingual aspect-lower molar arcade E - Buccal aspect-upper molar arcade, Lingual aspect-lower molar arcade 19. A 3 year-old domestic longhair female spayed cat is presented at your clinic with hypersalivation, vomiting, diarrhea, tremors, stumbling and a temperature of 105.2 F (40.7 C). Her pupils are normal size and responsive to light. While the vet examines the animal, she has a seizure. The owner relates that he had treated her the night before with a flea dip he had originally bought for his dog. What toxic ingredient do you suspect most highly? A - D-Limonene B - Carbamate C - Permethrin D - Organophosphate C - Permethrin 20. Which choice lists these species in order of gestation length, from longest to shortest pregnancy? A - Cow, Horse, Pig, Dog, Goat B - Cow, Horse, Pig, Goat, Dog C - Llama, Pig, Sheep, Ferret, Cat D - Horse, Cow, Goat, Pig, Dog D - Horse, Cow, Goat, Pig, Dog 21. What is a nosocomial infection? A - A sinusitis, typically found in horses B - An upper respiratory infection C - An infection acquired in a hospital D - An infection acquired secondary to injury C - An infection acquired in a hospital 22. Why is the brachioradialis muscle clinically significant in dogs and cats? A - Adjacent to the tibial nerve B - Associated with brachial plexus avulsion C - Lies above axillary artery D - Implicated in medial patellar luxation E - Can be mistaken for cephalic vein in venipuncture E - Can be mistaken for cephalic vein in venipuncture What is the clinical significance of the femoral triangle in dogs and cats? A - Associated with brachial plexus avulsion B - Good place to take pulse from femoral artery C - Often damaged with anterior cruciate injuries D - Pulse oximeters attach there E - Surgical approach for hip dysplasia repair B - Good place to take pulse from femoral artery How long after birth does gut closure typically occur in calves and foals? (when protective maternal antibodies can no longer be absorbed from the gut to the bloodstream) A - 1-3 hours B - 3-6 hours C - 9-12 hours D - 15-18 hours E - 18-24 hours E - 18-24 hours Vaccine-associated sarcomas in cats are primarily linked to with which two vaccines? A - FeLV and Feline Panleukopenia vaccines B - FeLV and Rabies vaccines C - Feline Calici/Herpes and Panleukopenia vaccines D - FeLV and Feline Calici/Herpes vaccines E - Rabies and Feline Panleukopenia vaccines B - FeLV and Rabies vaccines How long after the first rabies vaccination is a dog, cat or ferret considered to be immunized and protected against rabies?