BCNS Super Study Set UPDATED Questions With 100% Complete Solutions

BCNS Super Study Set UPDATED Questions With 100% Complete Solutions Examples of dietary nutrients that are absorbed directly into the enterohepatic portal blood system include: amino acids,medium-chain fatty acids, monosaccharides The hormone responsible for the decrease in gastrointestinal smooth muscle tone and motility during pregnancy is: progesterone The ingestion of a meal containing large amounts of saturated fat will result in a transient increase in the serum concentration of: chylomicrons The product of enterokinase reaction is: trypsin Most iron is transported in the blood via the plasma carrier: transferrin The organs most active in the synthesis of endogenous cholesterol are the liver and the: adrenal glands Lactulose is a carbohydrate that is: a nonabsorbable laxative digested dietary protein is absorbed primarily in the: jejunum The jejunum is the middle segment of the small intestine found between the duodenum and the ileum. Most of the nutrients present in food are absorbed by the jejunum before being passed on to the ileum for further absorption. Monosaccharides are transported across the placenta from the maternal circulation to the fetal circulation by the process of: facilitated diffusion If a bolus containing 600mOsm/L enters the jejunum, the net direction of fluid movement in the intestinal tract will be: from the circulation to the intestinal lumen Excessive production of gas within the intestines may be caused by excessive colonic bacterial fermentation of unabsorbed: carbohydrates A major intracellular antioxidant is the nutrient: glutathione A required prerequisite to the digestion of proteins is the HCl-dependent process called: denaturation The true digestibility of dietary fatty acids is: 95% The structures of linoleic acid and gamma-linolenic acid differ in their: numbers of double bonds An example of a compound that is not considered to be a component of dietary fiber is: amylose Dietary fats and oils primarily are composed of: triglycerides A nutrient is considered to be conditionally essential when: its endogenous production becomes insufficient to satisfy needs Vitamin reserves can become depleted because all vitamins are: essential nutrients The process of adding a nutrient ot manufactured foods as a public health measure is called: foritification Food additives can be used: as effective preservatives Nutrification is the addition of a nutrient to a food in order to assure the distribution of that nutrient to a target population group Ketones result from the metabolism of: fatty acids The plasmalemma does not incorporate: vitamin A The failure of a tissue or organ to develop properly is called: aplasia Glutamine is the primary energy source for the: small intestine The metabolic effects of insulin include stimulation of: myocyte amino acid uptake The most common skeletal complication of chronic renal failure is: secondary hyperparathyroidism Secondary hyperparathyroidism (SHPT) refers to the excessive secretion of parathyroid hormone (PTH) by the parathyroid glands in response to hypocalcemia (low blood calcium levels) and associated hyperplasia of the glands. This disorder is especially seen in patients with chronic kidney failure. Most circulating cholesterol is eliminated from the body after metabolism to: bile acids Vitamin B12 is a required cofactor in the biochemical pathway through which glucose is produced from the amino acid: valine Copper is a component of: ceruloplasmin The decarboxylation of pyruvate involves a sequence of reactions that require, as coenzymes, the four vitamins: thiamin, pantothenic acid, riboflavin, and niacin The size of the free amino acid pool in the human body is regulated by the rate of: oxidation of amino acids During maximal aerobic exercise, the primary energy source is: fatty acids A set of 150 observations has a mean of 5 and a standard deviation of 1.5. The 95% confidence limits of the mean can be calculated by solving the formula: 95% CL=5+/- (1.96)[(1.5^2)/150]^(1/2) A cross-sectional study compared cardiovascular risk factors and resting metabolic rate (RMR) in 400 sedentary (SED) and 400 resistance trained (RT) young women. The measured RMR were 4.31 +/- 0.06 kJ/min and 3.99 +/- 0.05 kJ/min, respectively. The valid interpretation of the RMR data is that: RMRsed and RMRrt are significantly different (p0.05) The phrase 'p.05' should be interpreted to mean that: the probability of the same result occurring by random chance is 5% The relationship be tween 2 correlated variables is: mathematical Meta-analysis is a quantitative approach for systematically combining the results of previous, non-definitive research in order to: allow a conclusion to be drawn The most difficult challenge facing a nutritionist or nutrition counselor is to: motivate behavior modification Dysgeusia may result from a dietary deficiency of the nutrient: zinc Pantothenic acid is a component of: coenzyme A Selenium deficiency has been implicated in the development of: subclinical hypothyroidism The dietary fatty acid considered to be essential in the diet of humans is: linoleic acid Iron is absorbed in the small intesting in the form of: ferrous iron The risk of congential microencephaly increases during pregnancy when habitual intake of pre-formed vitamin A exceed the RDA for vitamin A by: 5-fold Vitamin C, vitamin E, and B-carotene may exert cardioprotective effects by: inhibiting the oxidation of LDL Signs of a deficiency in essential fatty acids include: dull skin and dandruff The form in which fatty acids usually are found in food is as: triglycerides A dietary source of omega-3 essential fatty acids is: flax oil The disease associated with deficiency of vitamin B1 is known as: beri-beri Polyneuropathy may accompany chronic consumption of large amounts of: alcohol Of beef, bacon, salmon, and broccoli, the food source with the greates nutrient density (g per 100 Kcal) for fat is: bacon Chromium influences plasma glucose concentrations by stimulating: myocyte sodium-glucose transport Most vegetables are generally considered to be nutritionally inferior to most animal proteins because typically they contain: fewer essential amino acids Two vitamins which are very toxic when ingested in amounts 10-fold or more greater than the current USRDA are: vitamin A and vitamin D An early indicator of impending selenosis is: garlic odor of breath The consumption of 1750 excess Kcal will result in the deposition of new body fat weighing: 227g --- 1,750 kcal is 1/2 of 3,500 (=1 lb); 1,750 = 0.5 lbs 454g = 1 lb, so 227g would equal 0.5 lbs Iron in foods in primarily in the form of: ferous iron Most of the activated folic acid in the human body is in the form of: methyltetrahydrofolic acid A good dietary source of riboflavin is: steak Among the foods beef, bacon, fish, and spinach, the food source with the greatest nutrient density (mg per 100 Kcal) for iron is: spinach Among the following foods, the nutrient density of vitamin D is greates in: salmon The best source of supplemental calcium for an elderly woman with hypochlorhydria is: calcium citrate Excessive consumption of dietary fiber impaires the bioavailability of: zinc Cruciferous vegetables lack: highly bioavailable calcium The vitamin K content of human breast milk is: low 25-OHD3 is converted to 1,25(OH)2D3 by: renal cells Daily consumption of 50 Kcal of excess dietary energy for a year will produce a weight gain of: 4-5 pounds Skeletal manifestations of hypervitaminosis A include osteonecrosis Selenium is a required cofactor for: NADP reductase Vitamin E deficiency in humans commonly results in: neurological dysfunction Quercitin protects ascorbic acid from: oxidation Flavonoids are: lipid miscible Dietary proteins are of high biological value when they are obtained from: eggs, chicken meats and cheddar cheese The dietary change that is the most effective in contributing to a decrease in serum total cholesterol concentration is: a decrease in saturated fat intake The USDA 'food pyramid' does not recommend: up to 5 meat servings daily The protein intake standard the USRDA uses to reflect protein quality is the: protein efficiency ratio The biological value of food proteins can be enhanced by: combining them with complementary food proteins Intake of chromium below 30 micrograms a day has been associated with decreased: skeletal mass The daily calcium requirements of postmenopausal women who are not receiving estrogen replacement therapy are approximately: 1,500mg of calcium as calcium carbonate The daily calcium requirements of postmenopausal women who are not receiving estrogen replacement therapy can be met by the daily consumption of: five (5) cups of skim milk Reduced consumption of salt and salty food may: reduce blood volume and blood pressure The quality of foods voluntarily selected by a population or group is not likely to be improved by: changes in guidelines In men between the ages of 25 and 75, average daily iron needs generally: remain the same During the past 50 years, the average total caloric intake among infants in the United States: has increased Aging is associated with several changes in metabolism, including: decreased basal metabolic rate, reduced muscle mass, and increased fat deposition An exercise program combining aerobic and strength exercises will increase metabolic rate by about: 10% or less Prior to becoming pregnant, women can reduce the risk of giving birth to offspring with neural tube defects by eating more foods rich in: folate Compared to his peers, a healthy 15-year old male who is a competitive weight lifter should consume more protein and more: carbohydrates Avoidance of foods of animal origin requires dietary proteins to be: balanced in their essential amino acid composition A vegetarian who ingests no animal products whatsoever is most at risk for developing a deficiency of: vitamin B12, riboflavin, and zinc Megaloblastic anemia of pregnancy usually results from a deficiency of: folacin During gestation, dietary requirements are increased for: thiamin, riboflavin, and niacin During gestation, the fetus receives nourishment primarily from: the placental circulation Compared to commercial infant formulas, human milk has a greater concentration of: cholesterol An infant should be introduced to new foods one at a time because: any subsequent allergic reaction can be associated with the triggering food The most serious consequence of feeding 'double-strength' formula to an infant is likely to be: dehydration The best predictor of energy needs during adolescence is: increase in height Some nutrients requirements are greater during lactation than during pregnancy; however, the requirements are the same for: calcium and iron Weight loss in obese persons is associated with increased risk for: gallstones The caloric equivalent of one gram of lean tissue is approximately: 1 Kcal To maintain basic hydration, an elderly individual must consume at least: 8 cups of fluid per day In order to maximize the health of her fetus, a woman in her sixth month of pregnancy should supplement her diet with additional: calories and iron The fetus acquires most of its calcium during: the third trimester Compared to the requirements of a non pregnant adult woman, the dietary requirements for several vitamins are increased during gestation; among these are the requirements for: thiamin, riboflavin, and niacin A woman who is overweight or obese at the time of conception should modify her diet to reduce her weight: after parturition Among the members of the following ethnic group, hypertensive individuals usually are salt-sensitive: elderly African-Americans Data supporting the hypothesis that dietary composition influences the development of cancer include observations that: cruciferous vegetables may protect against tumorigenesis Diet assessment of a population can be used to: determine general characteristics As a public health measure, chicken is packed in ice to prevent: salmonella food poisioning Reheating potentially hazardous foods that have been cooked and then refrigerated must be performed with: rapid reheating devices The microorganism most likely to be responsible for foodborne illness after the ingestion of raw seafood is a special belonging to the genus: vibrio The minimize the risk of foodborne illness, the maximum number of days for which poultry should be refrigerated is: three (3) In order to prevent trichinosis, the internal temperature of pork during cooking should reach at least: 170 degrees F An approximate doubling of the growth rate of bacteria contaminating food will occur when the temperature changes from: 27 degrees F to 37 degrees F Hazard Analysis and Critical Control Points (HACCP) programs are designed to minimize the risk of food contamination by: emphasizing events at selected processing steps Use of a thiazide diuretic drug may produce a low plasma concentration of: potassium Intestinal absorption of dietary iron may be enhanced by concurrent ingestion of: ascorbic acid Dietary intakes of thiamin, riboflavin, and niacin are related to the intake of: calories Pharmacological agenst used in chemotherapy can cause adverse gastrointestinal reactions because these agents: alter normal mucosal cell proliferation Individuals taking anticonvulsant medications may develop depleted reserves of: folate and vitamin D Altered metabolism of pyridoxine in chronic alcoholism results from: increased aldehyde oxidase activity Insulin sensitivity may be enhanced by supplementation with: chromium picolinate To decrease the Respiratory Quotient (RQ), one should replace dietary: carbohydrate with fat Initial advice for a lactose-intolerant postmenopausal woman with a history of kidney stones and subnormal spinal BMD should be: dietary supplementation with magnesium Dietary modification is the primary therapeutic approach in: diabetes Children with cystic fibrosis are not likely to be able to absorb large amounts of: lipids Lactose intolerant infants should be fed infant formulas that contain protein derived from soybeans because such formulas: do not contain lactose The development of obesity may be associated with a decreased: ratio of protein to lipid within each adipocytes In individuals with amyloidosis, there is abnormal deposition within various organs and issues of: protein The diet of individuals with xerostomia should include: moist foods, gravies and liquids The diet of an individual with diverticulosis should contain large amounts of: dietary fiber The purpose of encouraging individuals with diabetes to increase their dietary fiber content of their meals is to: minimize postprandial hyperglycemia The management of adults with advanced chronic renal failure should include: protein restriction Epidemiologic data suggests that decreased mortality from heart disease accompanies increased consumption of the antioxidant: vitamin E Currently, supplementation with w-3 fatty acids has not been shown to benefit individuals with: mitral valve prolapse An inborn error of metabolism may result from: DNA replication errors The oil most effective for increasing the serum HDL-cholesterol concentration without increasing the serum LDL-cholesterol concentration is: olive oil In individuals with chronic alcoholism, protection may be afforded against the fatty infiltration of the liver caused by alcoholism by maintaining adequate dietary intake of: choline A factor that does not predispose an infant to iron deficiency is: slow growth rate Dumping syndrome is accompanied by symptoms of: faintness, weakness, and profuse perspiration Deitary modifications helpful to individuals with alcoholic cirrhosis include restricted consumption of foods that contain large amounts of: protein Dietary modifications appropriate for an individual with uncomplicated infectious hepatitis include: restricting energy intake to more than 3000 Kcal daily A possible reason for failure of oral rehydration in children is the persistence of: vomiting Nutrition support via enteral intubation may be contraindicated in the presence of the following conditions: congestive heart failure, instability of sternal wound, pneumonia The infusion of a hypertonic nutrient solution through the jugular or saphenous vein is called: central parenteral alimentation The nutritional history of a child over 3 years may be reflected in the child's: height The most accurate way to assess micronutrient intake is through the use of a: "food frequency questionnaire" The energy provided by 10ml of an infant formula contains, per, dL, 1g protein, 3g fat, 9g carbohydrate, 1mg Ca, and 2.5mg P, totals: 6.7Kcal The amount of food to serve a young child is best determined by the: child's appetite and rate of growth Muscle protein content can be estimated from measurements of: urinary creatine excretion The minimum urine volume required to excrete a renal solute load of 600mOsm, when the renal concentrating ability is 1200mOsm, is: 500ml The metabolite whose serum concentration is the most important to monitor during refeeding of a chronically starved individual is: phosphorus The breath hydrogen test is a useful diagnostic tool in the identification of individuals suffering from: lactose intolerance A useful test to monitor the adequacy of diet and drug therapy in an individual with non-insulin-dependent diabetes mellitus is the: hemoglobin A1c (glycohemoglobin) concentration Protein of the highest biological value is found in foods in the group that includes: meat and eggs The growth-limiting amino acid in soy protein is: methionine Symptoms of magnesium deficiency include: apathy, depression, and fatigue Experimentally increasing calcium intake may improve measured calcium balance without increasing measured calcium deposition because: increased calcium balance may result from decreased bone resorption An individual who is 150cm tall and weighs 90kg has a body mass index of: 40 According to the National Cholesterol Education Program (NCEP), in an otherwise healthy adult male, a serum total cholesterol concentration greater than 240mg/dl is considered to be: high A fasting plasma glucose concentration of 180mg/dl reflects probable: diabetes Assessing overall dietary status by hair analysis is: untrustworthy for most nutrients The most accurate and reliable way to assess the macronutrient intake of an individual is through the use of a: 7-day food intake diary An increase in the serum concentration of unconjugated bilirubin may be caused by metabolic dysfunction in the: liver An individual who is 200cm tall and weighs 100kg has a body mass index of: 25 A fasting plasma glucose concentration of 134mg/dl reflects probable: glucose intolerance A fasting plasma glucose concentration of 50mg/dl may suggest the presence of: hyperinsulinemia The professional responsibilities of the nutritionist or nutrition counselor include: developing the plan of nutrition care, implementing the plan of nutrition care, evaluating the effectiveness of nutrition care A lecture series about nutrition may be deemed behaviorally effective if the attendees: later document changes in their eating habits and practices The modern practice of nutrition is based on: a scientific base in frequent flux According to the Dietary Supplement and Health Education Act of 1994, all of the following are dietary supplements: ginseng, echinacea, ephedra Responsibile recommendations to consume vitamins in amounds exceeding their RDA's: balance benefits and risks Dumping syndrome is associated with: A. Osmotic movement of water into the jejunum due to the presence of carbohydrate B. Reactive hypoglycemia C. Gastric resection surgery D. All of the above Answer: D - Dumping syndrome is associated with the movement of water into the jejunum due to the presence of carbohydrate. It often accompanies gastric resection surgery and leads to diarrhea. Reactive hypoglycemia may result when carbohydrate in the gut is rapidly digested and absorbed, leading to over-secretion of insulin. What do white specs in the nails indicate a deficiency in? zinc Q - Which of the following is a common side effect of immunosuppressive drug therapy used in organ transplantation? A. Sodium and fluid diuresis B. Hyperphosphatemia C. Hyperkalemia D. Decreased vitamin C requirements Answer: C - Hyperkalemia (elevated potassium levels) is a common side effect of immunosuppressive drug therapy used in organ transplantation, as a result of disturbances in renal hormone activity. Sodium and fluid retention and hypophosphatemia (electrolyte disturbance with abnormally low level of phosphate in the blood) are also side effects of immunosuppressive drugs. Q - Which of the following is true for reactive hypoglycemia? A. It is defined as a plasma glucose level less than 70 mg/dl. B. It is treated with a diet high in complex carbohydrates. C. It is diagnosed by measuring blood glucose levels one hour after eating. D. Peak insulin activity occurs 90-180 minutes after food is eaten. Answer: D - Initially after eating, blood glucose levels become dangerously low following a meal. In reactive hypoglycemia peak insulin activity occurs 90-180 minutes after food is eaten, vs. the normal insulin response which occurs 30-60 minutes after eating. Reactive hypoglycemia is defined as a plasma glucose level LESS than 50 mg/dl, is treated with a moderate carbohydrate (40 to 55%) diet, and is diagnosed by measuring blood glucose levels immediately after eating. Some critical illnesses can cause it--liver and kidney disorders. Q - Nutrient needs of infants diagnosed with bronchopulmonary dysplasia: A. Are linked with linear growth B. May include a resting energy expenditure 50% higher than that of normal infants C. May include use of diuretics to regulate water balance D. All of the above Answer: D - Nutrient needs of infants diagnosed with bronchopulmonary disease are linked with linear growth (a measure of lung development), may include a resting energy expenditure that is 50% higher than that of normal infants, and may include the use of diuretics to regulate water balance. Bronchopulmonary disease is a common lung disorder in premature infants which increases energy needs. Diuretics are often needed to regulate water balance as a result of respiratory compromise. Q - A food frequency questionnaire differs from a 24-hour recall in what way: A. A food frequency questionnaire does not inquire about portion sizes. B. The 24-hour recall asks about typical meal patterns. C. A food frequency questionnaire allows open-ended responses. D. A food frequency questionnaire always asks about the same types of foods. Answer: B - A food frequency questionnaire differs from a 24-hour recall because it does not ask about typical meal patterns. A food frequency questionnaire asks about intakes of different types of foods and usual portion sizes over time, and does not allow open-ended responses. The types of foods asked about on a food frequency questionnaire may be changed to reflect the population of interest. Q - Examples of foods avoided on a low-purine diet are: A. Eggs, cheese, peanut butter B. Sardines, broth, organ meats C. Carrots, tomatoes, corn D. Bread, crackers, cold cereal Answer: B - Examples of foods avoided on a low-purine diet are sardines, broth, and organ meats. These foods are high in purine and are eliminated in the treatment of gout, caused by high levels of uric acid in the blood. Purines (chemical compound found in some foods) are broken down into uric acid. Q - A 25-year old female patient recovering from surgery to correct an intestinal obstruction needs complete bowel rest which necessitates the use of Total Parenteral Nutrition (TPN). The patient was 10 pounds underweight prior to surgery and is occasionally febrile. Which of the following formulations would be most appropriate for this patient? A. 30 kcals, 1 g protein, 30 ml fluid per kg/body weight;100 mg vitamin C, 5 mg zinc per day B. 45 kcals, 2 g protein, 35 ml fluid per kg/body weight; 200 mg vitamin C, 6 mg zinc per day C. 60 kcals, 3 g protein, 40 ml fluid per kg/body weight; 500 mg vitamin C, 10 mg zinc per day D. None of the above Answer: B - The formula which would be most appropriate for this patient would contain 45 calories, 2 grams of protein, and 35 ml water per kg of body weight per day, as well as 200 mg of vitamin C and 6 mg of zinc. Starting with an intermediate level of caloric and protein intake, along with moderate vitamin C and zinc to promote healing, allows staff to monitor the patient's progress and determine if adjustment in the formula is needed. Q - Steatorrhea (FAT IN STOOL) may be caused by: A. Disruption in the activity of pancreatic enzymes B. Excessive production of bile salts by the liver C. Lack of intrinsic factor D. Intake of more than 70 grams of fat per day Answer: A - Steatorrhea may be caused by disruption in the activity of pancreatic enzymes that help to digest fat. It may also be caused by inadequate production of bile salts, which are needed for fat absorption. Q - Maple-syrup urine disease (MSUD) is an autosomal (chromosome) recessive disorder in infants caused by: A. The inability to metabolize branched-chain amino acids B. Plasma leucine levels exceeding 10 mg/dl C. A defect in the gene that controls the activity of alpha-keto acid hydrogenase D. A & C Answer: D - Maple-syrup urine disease (MSUD) in an autosomal recessive disorder in infants caused by the inability of the body to metabolize the branched-chain amino acids leucine, isoleucine, and valine. The inability to break down branched-chain amino acids is due to a mutation in the gene that controls the activity of the enzyme alpha-keto acid dehyrogenase. Plasma levels of leucine exceeding 10 mg/dl are associated with the symptoms of MSUD, including lethargy, vomiting, and neurologic changes. Q - Food intolerance is distinguished from food allergy in what way: A. Food intolerance is diagnosed by challenge tests. B. One of the causes of food intolerance is the passage of intact proteins across the gastrointestinal tract. C. There is no immunologic reaction with food intolerance. D. The body uses cellular immunity to combat food intolerance. Answer: C - Food intolerance is distinguished from food allergy by the lack of immunologic reaction, which involves release of an antibody in response to an antigen (allergen). Food allergy, not food intolerance, involves the reaction of the body's cellular immune system, and is often caused by the passage of intact proteins across the GI tract. Q - Cow's milk is unsuitable for infants less than a year of age due to: A. Large amounts of whey protein B. Inadequate fat content C. High cholesterol level D. High renal solute load Answer: D - Cow's milk is unsuitable for infants less than a year of age due to its high renal solute load, which stresses the infant's kidneys. The potential renal solute load (PRSL) of infant feedings is the sum of dietary nitrogen (expressed as mmol of urea, i.e., mg nitrogen divided by 28), sodium, potassium, chloride and phosphorus. Cow's milk contains casein protein, which is less digestible than whey, and its percentages of fat and cholesterol are not significantly different from that of breast milk. An effective nutrition screening program: A. Involves all members of the health care team who want to participate B. Is based on the principles of sensitivity and specificity C. Always uses food frequency questionnaires D. Is used only to screen for childhood diseases Answer: B - An effective nutrition screening program is based on the principles of sensitivity and specificity. Sensitivity helps ensure that a nutrition screening program picks up individuals at nutritional risk, while specificity helps to exclude individuals not at nutritional risk. Nutrition screening programs may use different types of tools to collect dietary information, and are used in populations of all ages, not just children. Which of the following nutrients produces an Respiratory Quotient (RQ) of 1.0, as measured by indirect calorimetry? A. Protein B. Fat C. Carbohydrate D. All of the above Answer: C - Carbohydrate produces an RQ (the ratio of CO2 produced to O2 consumed while food is being metabolized) of 1.0 using indirect calorimetry. This is because the number of molecules of carbon dioxide produced during carbohydrate metabolism is equal to the number of molecules of oxygen consumed. The Guthrie test is used to diagnose: A. Galactosemia B. Ornithine transcarboxylase deficiency C. Glycogen storage disease D. Phenylketonuria Answer: D - The Guthrie test is a blood assay used to diagnose phenylketonuria in newborn infants. It detects bacterial growth in an agar culture that is due to the presence of excess phenylalanine. Which of the following nutrients converts osteocalcin into its active form? A. Boron B. Calcium C. Magnesium D. Vitamin K Answer: D - Vitamin K Osteocalcin, also known as bone gamma-carboxyglutamic acid (GLA)-containing protein, is a noncollagenous protein hormone found in bone and dentin. Because it has GLA domains, its synthesis is vitamin K dependent. The lower the bone mass density, the greater the risk that the person will: A. develop osteoarthritis B. develop asthma C. develop COPD D. fracture a bone Answer: D - Fracture a bone Which of the following foods impairs calcification of bone in developing children? A. Beef B. Colas C. Green leafy vegetables D. Milk Answer: B - Colas List three specific nutrients that are recommended to build bone: Calcium, magnesium, phosphorus, vitamin D Neurotransmitter imbalances can affect sleep. Which of the following are the most logical approach to help to balance neurotransmitters? A. Calcium, magnesium, and potassium B. Melatonin and 5-HTP