RNAS-C Exam 4 Practice Test 75 Questions with Verified Answers,100% CORRECT

RNAS-C Exam 4 Practice Test 75 Questions with Verified Answers A couple expecting their second child is worried about Rh incompatibility. Their first child was Rh+. They have their blood typed. Which result would be cause for alarm? A) both parents Rh- B) both parents Rh+ C) man Rh- and woman Rh+ D) man Rh+ and woman Rh- - CORRECT ANSWER D) man Rh+ and woman Rh- Research indicates that allergies may actually be due to a mutation in the gene that encodes a skin protein called _______________. A) filaggrin B) CCR5 C) SCIDX1 D) the B27 antigen, - CORRECT ANSWER A) filaggrin TThe identification proteins on the surface of cells belong to a class of molecules called the _____. A) cytokines B) Rh factors C) major histocompatibility complex D) ABO antigen locus - CORRECT ANSWER C) major histocompatibility complex Which of the following is not part of the nonspecific, innate defense? A) phagocytosis B) antibodies C) inflammatory response D) fever - CORRECT ANSWER B) antibodies ______ are cytokines that cause fever, temporarily maintaining a higher body temperature. A) Interferons B) Interleukins C) Tumor necrosis factors D) Collectins - CORRECT ANSWER B) Interleukins The specialized ends or tips of the variable regions of antibodies are called _____. A) interleukins B) heavy chains C) antigen binding sites D) idiotypes - CORRECT ANSWER C) antigen binding sites Helper T cells secrete ____, which stimulate white blood cells in the bone marrow to mature. A) interleukins B) interferons C) colony stimulating factors D) tumor necrosis factors - CORRECT ANSWER C) colony stimulating factors Which antibody type protects against bacteria, viruses, and toxins, especially in secondary immune responses? A) IgA B) IgD C) IgE D) IgG - CORRECT ANSWER D) IgG Allergens stimulate the production of ____ antibodies that bind to mast cells, causing them to release allergy mediators. A) IgA B) IgD C) IgE D) IgG - CORRECT ANSWER C) IgE Mutations encoding ____ cause inherited immune deficiencies. A) cytokine genes B) T cell receptors C) antibody genes D) All of the above - CORRECT ANSWER D) All of the above A(n) __________ is the part of an antigen that an antibody binds. A) epitope B) antibody C) isotype D) major histocompatibility complex - CORRECT ANSWER A) epitope Monoclonal antibodies are produced by a fused cell consisting of _____. A) a B cell and a T cell B) a B cell and a cancer cell C) a mast cell and a macrophage D) None of the above - CORRECT ANSWER B) a B cell and a cancer cell Humoral immunity can be boosted using _____. A) monoclonal antibody technology B) treatment with interferon C) treatment with interleukin-2 D) treatment with cytokines - CORRECT ANSWER A) monoclonal antibody technology Which of the following statements about crowd diseases is true? A) Crowd diseases are very difficult to bring under control and may linger for many months. B) The diseases that killed early Native Americans cannot be classified as crowd diseases. C) Crowd diseases tend to pass from those who live in large societies to those who live in smaller, more isolated societies. D) We don't expect new crowd diseases to emerge in the future. - CORRECT ANSWER C) Crowd diseases tend to pass from those who live in large societies to those who live in smaller, more isolated societies. ____ is a type of cytokine that activates other protective biochemicals, destroys certain bacterial toxins, and attacks cancer cells. A) Interleukin B) Antigen C) Tumor necrosis factor D) Antibody - CORRECT ANSWER C) Tumor necrosis factor The part of an antibody that specifically binds foreign antigens at their epitopes is called the _____. A) idiotype B) heavy chain C) collectin D) complement - CORRECT ANSWER A) idiotype In an autoimmune disease, the body manufactures autoantibodies against its own cells. Autoimmunity may result from _____. A) a virus that incorporates and displays a self antigen B) bacteria or cancer cells that have antigens that resemble self antigens C) unselected T cells D) lingering fetal cells E) All of the above - CORRECT ANSWER E) All of the above The term "cancer" means _____. A) cell division B) out of control C) crablike D) lobster - CORRECT ANSWER C) crablike T/F Cancer is a relatively recent disease brought on by environmental carcinogens. - CORRECT ANSWER false Cancer is a genetic disease at the ____ level. A) cellular B) whole body C) population D) All of the above - CORRECT ANSWER A) cellular Cancer is often the result of activation of ____ to ____ and the inactivation of ____ genes. A) oncogenes; tumor-suppressor genes; proto-oncogenes B) proto-oncogenes; oncogenes; tumor-suppressor genes C) oncogenes; proto-oncogenes; tumor-suppressor genes D) proto-suppressor genes; suppressors; oncogenes - CORRECT ANSWER B) proto-oncogenes; oncogenes; tumor-suppressor genes More then half of human cancers involve a point mutation or deletion in the _____. A) oncogene B) proto-oncogene C) p53 gene D) BRCA-1 gene - CORRECT ANSWER C) p53 gene Inherited retinoblastoma requires ____ mutation(s) or deletion(s). A) one B) two C) three D) four - CORRECT ANSWER B) two The Philadelphia chromosome is associated with which type of cancer? A) breast B) thyroid C) nerve D) leukemia - CORRECT ANSWER D) leukemia BRCA-1 is associated with which cancer? A) breast B) thyroid C) nerve D) leukemia - CORRECT ANSWER A) breast Which of the following cancers are caused by viruses? A) acute T cell leukemia B) Kaposi sarcoma C) cervical cancer D) all of these - CORRECT ANSWER D) all of these n oncogene transcribed and translated with another gene produces a _____. A) transcribed protein B) fusion protein C) fusion cell D) cancer protein - CORRECT ANSWER B) fusion protein The p53 protein normally promotes _____. A) mutation B) tumor formation C) uncontrolled cell division D) apoptosis - CORRECT ANSWER D) apoptosis The p53 gene is especially prone to _____. A) point mutation B) chromosomal rearrangement C) crossing over D) None of the above - CORRECT ANSWER A) point mutation Which of the following cancers develops from loss of tumor suppression? A) acute promyelocytic leukemia B) Wilms' tumor C) Burkitt's lymphoma D) anal cancer following HPV infection, - CORRECT ANSWER B) Wilms' tumor A mutation in which gene is often an early event in colon cancer? A) APC B) BRCA1 C) P53 D) RB - CORRECT ANSWER A) APC FAP is an example of a type of cancer that _____. A) requires only one mutation to develop B) requires several mutations to develop C) is caused by unknown genes D) is not found in humans - CORRECT ANSWER B) requires several mutations to develop Which type of study compares the incidence of a type of cancer among very different groups of people? A) population B) case-control C) prospective D) empiric - CORRECT ANSWER A) population Which type of study would compare cancer rates seen in a group of individuals who take herbal supplements versus those in a control group who do not use the supplement? A) population B) case-control C) prospective D) empiric - CORRECT ANSWER C) prospective Cancer cells anchor themselves to tissue boundaries, called ____, where they secrete enzymes that cut paths through healthy tissue. A) skin cells B) lung cells C) basement membranes D) angiogenesis - CORRECT ANSWER C) basement membranes Newer approaches to cancer treatments include _____. A) blocking hormone receptors B) stimulating cell specialization C) blocking telomerase D) inhibiting angiogenesis E) All of the above - CORRECT ANSWER E) All of the above The use or alteration of cells or biological molecules for specific applications is termed ______________. A) recombinant DNA B) transgenic organisms C) biotechnology D) gene targeting - CORRECT ANSWER C) biotechnology For the same gene, it is possible to patent _____. A) genomic DNA B) protein-encoding exons C) a gene variant D) All of the above - CORRECT ANSWER D) All of the above The first patent for a transgenic organism was awarded in 1988. Which organism was patented? A) a yeast used in industrial processes B) a bacterium able to metabolize components of crude oil C) a mouse that manufactures human protein in its milk D) Life forms cannot be patented. - CORRECT ANSWER C) a mouse that manufactures human protein in its milk The polymerase for a PCR reaction comes from what organism? A) a yeast used in industrial processes B) a bacterium able to metabolize components of crude oil C) a mouse that manufactures human protein in its milk D) a microbe that inhabits hot springs - CORRECT ANSWER D) a microbe that inhabits hot springs The reaction that copies target DNA into RNA, then uses an RNA polymerase to amplify the RNA is called _____. A) nucleic acid amplification B) polymerase chain reaction C) RNA amplification D) transcription-mediated amplification - CORRECT ANSWER D) transcription-mediated amplification A cDNA version of a gene includes _____. A) codons for a mature mRNA B) sequences corresponding to promoters C) sequences corresponding to introns D) both b and c - CORRECT ANSWER A) codons for a mature mRNA ____ consist of recombinant cells containing different fragments of a foreign genome. A) DNA probes B) Homologous recombinants C) DNA libraries D) Knockout organisms - CORRECT ANSWER C) DNA libraries Which gene transfer technique involves a tiny needle which is used to inject DNA into a cell lacking that DNA sequence? A) electroporation B) liposome transfer C) microinjection D) particle bombardment - CORRECT ANSWER C) microinjection Genetic engineering manipulates gene products at the level of the _____. A) protein B) amino acid C) DNA D) RNA - CORRECT ANSWER C) DNA ____ are used to select genes of interest from a genomic library. A) Restriction enzymes B) Cloning vectors C) DNA probes D) Gene targets - CORRECT ANSWER C) DNA probes cDNA is made from _____. A) mRNA B) rRNA C) DNA D) plasmids - CORRECT ANSWER A) mRNA Which gene transfer technique involves the use of a fatty bubble to carry a gene into an animal cell? A) electroporation B) liposome transfer C) microinjection D) particle bombardment - CORRECT ANSWER B) liposome transfer DNA microarrays are used for _____. A) introduction of foreign DNA into cells B) gene expression profiling C) amplification of DNA sequences outside of cells - CORRECT ANSWER C) amplification of DNA sequences outside of cells In a DNA microarray experiment, fluorescent tags are added to _____. A) cDNA molecules B) RNA molecules C) primers D) genomic libraries - CORRECT ANSWER A) cDNA molecules T/F The universality of the genetic code and of restriction enzyme cutting sites makes recombinant DNA technology possible. - CORRECT ANSWER true Genes conferring ____ are used to select cells harboring plasmids containing recombinant DNA. A) antibiotic resistance B) color changes in growth media C) All of the above - CORRECT ANSWER C) All of the above The ____ technique can be used to mass-produce a DNA sequence by rapidly replicating it in a test tube. A) bioremediation B) transgenic C) polymerase chain reaction (PCR) D) microarray - CORRECT ANSWER C) polymerase chain reaction (PCR) The requirements of the polymerase chain reaction (PCR) include: A) knowing parts of a target DNA sequence to be amplified. B) two primers, complementary to each end of the target sequence. C) a large supply of DNA nucleotides. D) a heat-stable DNA polymerase. E) All of the above - CORRECT ANSWER E) All of the above In the first step of the polymerase chain reaction, _____. A) heat is used to separate the two strands of the target DNA B) primers bind by complementary base pairing to the separated target strands C) TaqI DNA polymerase adds bases to the primers and builds a sequence complementary to the target sequence. - CORRECT ANSWER A) heat is used to separate the two strands of the target DNA Why can single-gene disorders be difficult for physicians to diagnose? A) They do not have a specific cause. B) They can produce a variety of symptoms that appear to be unrelated. C) They are usually fatal. D) They usually do not cause a noticeable phenotype. - CORRECT ANSWER B) They can produce a variety of symptoms that appear to be unrelated. What type of genetic screening tests would focus on the breast and ovarian cancer genes BRCA1 and BRCA2? A) prenatal B) carrier screening C) predisposition D) newborn - CORRECT ANSWER C) predisposition Which of the following tests provide population-wide testing for inborn errors of metabolism? A) prenatal B) carrier screening C) predisposition D) newborn - CORRECT ANSWER D) newborn A man and woman, each with a family history of sickle cell disease and no children would benefit most by _____. A) prenatal screening B) carrier screening C) predisposition testing D) having no screening because they already know their status - CORRECT ANSWER B) carrier screening A lack of T cells, as seen in ADA deficiency, can _____. A) cause an overproduction of certain antibodies B) lead to severe combined immune deficiency (SCID) C) inhibit blood clotting D) cause acquired immune deficiency syndrome (AIDS) - CORRECT ANSWER B) lead to severe combined immune deficiency (SCID) Germline gene therapy is _____. A) heritable B) not heritable C) sometimes heritable D) unrelated to heritability - CORRECT ANSWER A) heritable The first gene therapy used cells altered outside the recipient's body and is called ____ gene therapy. A) chaperone B) in vivo C) ex vivo D) vaccine - CORRECT ANSWER C) ex vivo Researchers have developed "preconception comprehensive carrier screening," which is a single test that detects 448 recessive diseases affecting children. Diseases included must meet which of the following criteria? A) the phenotype must be severe B) several mutations must be known C) penetrance must be high D) all of these - CORRECT ANSWER D) all of these Germline gene therapy could potentially correct a genetic defect in a(n) _____. A) affected individual only B) affected individual and his or her offspring only C) affected individual and all of his or her descendants D) parent of an affected child - CORRECT ANSWER C) affected individual and all of his or her descendants Preimplantation genetic diagnosis, samples a cell from ____. A) an early embryo B) fetuses C) newborns D) sperm - CORRECT ANSWER A) an early embryo Gene therapy is unlike conventional drug therapy in that it attempts to alter an individual's ____ in a part of the body that has malfunctioned. A) genotype only B) phenotype only C) Either a or b depending on the application - CORRECT ANSWER A) genotype only One of the first applications of pharmacogenetics was in _____. A) agalactosylceramide lipidosis B) Krabbe disease C) phenylketonuria D) breast cancer - CORRECT ANSWER D) breast cancer A _______________ test detects variants of multiple genes or gene expression patterns that affect drug metabolism. A) pharmacogenetic B) pharmacogenomic C) nutrigenetic - CORRECT ANSWER B) pharmacogenomic _______________ testing, offered through direct-to-consumer websites, was recently investigated by the U.S. Government Accountability Office. A) Pharmacogenetic B) Pharmacogenomic C) Nutrigenetic - CORRECT ANSWER C) Nutrigenetic ____ deficiency was the first disorder researchers treated with gene therapy. A) ADA B) OTC C) HH D) DMD - CORRECT ANSWER A) ADA Which vector used in gene therapy has proved useful in the treatment of sickle cell disease? A) adeno-associated virus B) adenovirus C) retrovirus - CORRECT ANSWER A) adeno-associated virus T/F Somatic gene therapy affects tissue that is passed on to offspring. - CORRECT ANSWER false Requirements for approval of clinical trials for gene therapy include _____. A) knowledge of defect and how it causes symptoms B) an animal model C) success in human cells growing in vitro D) no alternate therapies, or patients for whom existing therapies are not possible or have not worked E) safe experiments F) All of the above - CORRECT ANSWER F) All of the above A ____ confirms a diagnosis based on symptoms. A) carrier screen B) prenatal test C) prenatal screen D) diagnostic test - CORRECT ANSWER D) diagnostic test Tandem mass spectrometry is used in which of the following? A) newborn screening tests for inborn errors of metabolism B) chorionic villus sampling C) amniocentesis - CORRECT ANSWER C) amniocentesis