RCIS Exam Questions With Answers Latest Updated 2024 (Verified Answers Graded A+)

RCIS Exam Questions With Answers Latest Updated 2024 (Verified Answers Graded A+) What is the formula for calculating cardiac output? a. CO= PA- 1SVC b. CO= AO x PA c. CO= HR x SV - Answer c. CO= HR x SV Stoke Volume is ________? a. Related to preload b. Related to afterload c. The same as ejection fraction - Answer a. Related to preload Preload is most impacted by: a. Mean arterial pressure b. Increased filling volumes c. Ejection Fraction - Answer b. Increased filling volumes A patient with chronic untreated hypertension would demonstrate a. increased afterload b. decreased afterload c. decreased preload - Answer a. increased afterload Vascular resistance/pressure is most influenced by a. Blood Viscosity b. BMI c. Length of the vessel d. Radius of the vessel - Answer d. Radius of the vessel The formula for blood pressure is a. BP = SV x SVR b. BP = CO x SVR c. BP = HR x SVR - Answer b. BP = CO x SVR What component of a Pulmonary Capillary Wedge pressure indicates Mitral Insufficiency a. A wave b. C wave c. P Wave D. V wave - Answer D. V wave An elevated RVEDP is found in which pathology? a. LV infarct RCIS Exam Practice Questions And Answers 2023 b. Aortic stenosis c. RV infarct d. Mitral Regurgitation - Answer c. RV infarct If the RA waveform is 2x the normal value, where would this be demonstrated in the physical assessment? a. Decreased exercise tolerance b. decreased O2 sat c. Increased O2 sat d. JVD - Answer d. JVD What is the most common cause of pulmonic stenosis? a. Aging b. congenital c. cardiomyopathy d. mitral regurgitation - Answer b. congenital The blue proximal port of the swan is located how far from the distal tip of the swan? a. 15cm b. 30cm c. 45cm d. 5cm - Answer b. 30cm When performing a thermodilution cardiac output, the operator injects 10cc of saline into the ________ and the temperature change is measured in the _____. a. LA, AO b. RV, PCWP c. RA, PA d. RA, LA - Answer c. RA, PA Equalization of the RVEDP and LVEDP are found in a. tamponade b. Restrictive pericarditis c. acute MI d. LV MI - Answer b. Restrictive pericarditis Signs of Right sided heart failure include a. Decreased O2 Sat b. SOB c. JVD d. Pulmonary embolism - Answer c. JVD RCIS Exam Practice Questions And Answers 2023 Based on these oxygen saturations, what type of shunt is present? SVC sat = 67% IVC sat = 71% RA Sat = 85% RV Sat = 85% PA sat = 85% LA = 98% LV sat = 98% AO sat = 98% a. R to L ASD b. L to R ASD c. L to R VSD d. It is all normal, there is no shunt - Answer b. L to R ASD The type of ASD, located in the middle 1/3 of the atrial septum (the former site of the fossa ovalis) is called? a. Ostium Primium b. Sinus Venosus c. Ostium Secundum - Answer c. Ostium Secundum What is Flamm's equation? a. 3(SVC) + 1 (IVC) /4 b. 6 (SVC) + 2(IVC)/2 c. 3 (PA) + 2 (AO)/4 - Answer a. 3(SVC) + 1 (IVC) /4 The formula used to calculate MAP is a. HR x SV/SVR b. Mean AO- MeanRA c. 1 (systolic) + 2(diastolic)/3 - Answer c. 1 (systolic) + 2(diastolic)/3 What are the four anomalies associated with Tetralogy of Fallot? a. ASD, VSD, LVH, RVH b. VVH, PS, Overriding aorta, RVH c. Over riding aorta, RVH, LVH, ASD d. Pulmonic stenosis, over riding aorta, RVH, VSD - Answer d. Pulmonic stenosis, over riding aorta, RVH, VSD Which fetal anomaly is characterized by a large VSD over which a large single great vessel arises? a. Transposition of the Great Vessels b. Tricuspid Atresia c. Tetralogy of Fallot d. Truncas Arteriosus - Answer d. Truncas Arteriosus Pulsus Paradoxus is a sign of RCIS Exam Practice Questions And Answers 2023 a. Constrictive Pericarditis b. Cardiomyopathy c. Cardiac Tamponade D. COPD - Answer c. Cardiac Tamponade What does RAD stand for? a. radiation absorbed dose b. radiation attenuated date c. radiation attributable distance - Answer a. radiation absorbed dose What component of the X-ray system converts light rays into images? a. image intensifier b. xray tube c. photon tube d. anode - Answer a. image intensifier What is the maximum annual dose of radiation one can receive annually? a. 5 RAD b. 5 Currie c. 0.5 REM d. 5 REM - Answer d. 5 REM Lead protection should be at least how many millimeters of lead? a. 1.0 b. 0.25 c. 0.5 - Answer c. 0.5mm What is the minimum safe distance to position oneself from the x-ray source? a. 3 feet b. 6 feet c. 10 feet d. 15 feet - Answer b. 6 feet In an X-ray tube the a. Cathode is positive and the anode is negative b. cathode is negative and the anode is positive c. the charges alternate depending on the heat generated - Answer b. cathode is negative and the anode is positive Which view exposes the operator to the greatest amount of radiation? a. AP RCIS Exam Practice Questions And Answers 2023 b. LAO cranial c. Lateral d. RAO with cranial 30 - Answer c. Lateral What converts x-rays into an image? a. Filament b. Image intensifier c. x-ray tube d. Kvp - Answer b. Image intensifier The contrast that is best of the patient is a. Low osmolality b. High osmolality c. Renografin - Answer a. Low osmolality Radiolucent means a. x-rays are not permitted to pass through b. x-rays are partially deflected c. x-rays are permitted to pass through - Answer c. x-rays are permitted to pass through Radiopaque means a. x-rays are permitted to pass through b. x-rays are not permitted to pass through c. x-rays are randomly deflected - Answer b. x-rays are not permitted to pass through ReoPro works on a. Fibrin b. Prothrombin c. Antithrombin d. IIb/IIIa receptors - Answer d. IIb/IIIa receptors Heparin potentiates the action of a. antithrombin b. Factor III c. Factor IX d. Factor VIII - Answer a. antithrombin Fibrinogen is converted to Fibrin by the action of a. Pro Thrombin b. Tissue factor RCIS Exam Practice Questions And Answers 2023 c. Platelets d. Thrombin - Answer d. Thrombin There are _____ known pathways to imitate the clotting cascade? a. 2 b. 1 c. 3 d. 4 - Answer a. 2 Aspirin inhibits the action of a. Von Willebrand Factor b. Factor VII c. Thrombin d. Arachidonic acid - Answer d. Arachidonic acid Which agent is not an antiplatelet? a. ASA b. Heparin c. Plavix d. ReoPro - Answer b. Heparin If a patient has diabetes and renal failure with a creatinine of 2.0 what would you give? a. Lasix b. Fluids to hydrate c. Ionic contrast - Answer b. Fluids to hydrate If a patient is taking NPH insulin, which medication should not be given? a. Protamine b. Lasix c. Heparin - Answer a. Protamine What medication is most commonly given to a patient with SVT? a. NTG b. Lidocaine c. Dopamine d. Adenosine - Answer d. Adenosine If a patient has a creatinine greater than 1.4 contrast volume should be minimized. a. True b. Fasle - Answer a. True RCIS Exam Practice Questions And Answers 2023 Lidocaine converts from 2 GM in 500cc to _______ a. 8gm in 1cc b. 400mg in 250cc c. 4mg in 1cc - Answer c. 4mg in 1cc Dopamine concentration 1600mcg/ml in 250cc yields a concentration of a. 200mg in 250cc b. 400mg in 250cc c. 100mg in 250cc - Answer b. 400mg in 250cc The best short acting medication/anxietolytic to sedate a patient is a. fentanyl b. valium c. versed/midazolam - Answer c. versed/midazolam The drug of choice for treating coronary spasm is a. Verapamil b. NTG c. Amiodarone - Answer b. NTG Amiodarone is used to treat a. atrial arrhythmias only b. ventricular arrhythmias only c. Atrial and ventricular arrhythmias - Answer c. Atrial and ventricular arrhythmias What medication is used as a preload and afterload reducer? a. dopamine b. dobutamine c. NTG d. lidocaine - Answer c. NTG Diabetic patients have a greater incidence of developing _____ post contrast administration. a. renal failure b. infarct c. pulmonary embolism d. systemic infection - Answer a. renal failure Which rhythm is most likely to become lethal?