Yeoman Chapter 6

Yeoman Chapter 6 Who is responsible for establishing and maintaining an Information Security Program and Personnel Security Program?A. SECNAV B. OPNAV C. SECDEF D. CJC - ANS A. SECNAV Who is the personnel security adjudicative determination authority for the Department of the Navy personnel?A. OPMB. DODCAFC. AFCAFD. Security manager - ANS B. DODCAFDirector, Department of the Navy Central Adjudication Facility Who will be afforded direct access to the commanding officer to ensure effective management of the command's security program?A. Admin officerB. Executive officerC. Security managerD. Security representative - ANS Security manager For Navy personnel, who should receive a copy of the security manager's designation letter?A. CNO (N09N2) B. OPMC. DODCAFD. NCIS - ANS A. CNO (N09N2) What directive(s) provide the basis of the Navy's program for safeguarding classified information?A. SECNAV M-5510.36 and SECNAV M-5510.30B. SECNAV M-5510.32 and SECNAV M-5516.30C. SECNAVINST 5501.25 and SECNAVINST 5510.22 YSECNAVINST 5510.30 - ANS A. SECNAV M-5510.36 and SECNAV M-5510.30 Who assists commands with queries regarding the status of personnel security investigations at the Office of Personnel Management (OPM) issuing Letters of Intent (LOI) and Letters of Notification (LON)?A. DONB. OPMC. DODCAF D. NCIS - ANS C. DODCAF The Classified Information Non-disclosure Agreement (NDA) is maintained for how many years from the date of signature?A. 75 years B. 65 years C. 70 years D. 50 years - ANS 70 years What form is a written legally binding statement?A. SF-312B. SF-700C. Form 4414 D. SF-701 - ANS C. Form 4414 How often should personnel having access to classified information receive a refresher briefing?A. MonthlyB. QuarterlyC. Semiannually D. Annually - ANS D. Annually What is the DoD's personal security clearance and access database?. DEERS B. DCIIC. JPAS D. OPM - ANS C. JPAS What form is used to ensure all areas that process classified information are properly secured?A. SF 700B. SF 701C. DD 312D. Form 4414 - ANS B. SF 701 How many user levels are there in JPAS?A. Eight B. Ten C. Four D. Nine - ANS D. Nine What item is prohibited in a SCIF?A. Electronic calculators B. Personal cameraC. Heart pacemakerD. Radio - ANS B. Personal camera What authority is authorized to grant, deny, or revoke security clearances for all Department of the Navy personnel?A. OPNAV B. SECNAV C. BUPERS D. DODCAF - ANS D. DODCAF The disclosure of information that could cause exceptionally grave damage to national security should carry what classification?. SecretB. Top Secret C. Confidential D. Guarded - ANS B. Top Secret The Command Security Manager must be a military officer or civilian employee in at least what pay grade?A. GS-9B. GS-7C. GS-5D. GS-11 - ANS A. GS-9 A command accredited for and authorized to receive, process, and store SCI will designate what individual?A. Security ManagerB. Security OfficerC. Special Security OfficerD. Security Representative - ANS C. Special Security Officer AllSCI matters shall be referred to what individual?A. Special Security OfficerB. Command Security ManagerC. Executive officerD. Admin officer - ANS A. Special Security Officer The disclosure of information that could cause exceptionally serious damage to national security should carry what classification?A. SecretB. Top SecretC. ConfidentialD. Sensitive - ANS A. Secret The disclosure of information that could cause identifiable damage to national security should carry what classification?A. SecretB. Top SecretC. ConfidentialD. Interim - ANS C. Confidential Who is responsible for controlling the dissemination of classified material within the command?A. Security ManagerB. Administrative OfficerC. Executive OfficerD. Commanding Officer - ANS D. Commanding Officer Who is delegated the responsibility to ensure personnel are instructed on prevention of unauthorized disclosure of classified information?A. Security ManagerB. Administrative OfficerC. Commanding OfficerD. Executive Officer - ANS A. Security Manager Top Secret documents cannot be reproduced without the permission of what authority?A. Department HeadB. Security ManagerC. Commanding OfficerD. Issuing or higher authority - ANS D. Issuing or higher authority After a Top Secret document has been transferred, downgraded, or destroyed, the record of disclosure should be maintained for how many years?A. OneB. TwoC. ThreeD. Five - ANS B. Two What is the highest classification allowed for mailing classified material via USPS?A. SecretB. Top SecretC. ConfidentialD. Guarded - ANS A. Secret How many officials are required to witness the destruction of Top Secret material?A. OneB. TwoC. ThreeD. Four - ANS B. Two What is the maximum amount of hours a Temporary Secure Working Area (TSWA) can be used?A. 50 hours a monthB. 40 hours a weekC. 50 hours a weekD. 40 hours a month - ANS B. 40 hours a week What does the acronym SAER stand for?A. Security Advanced Eligibility ReportB. Security Access Eligibility ResponseC. Security Access Eligibility ReportD. Security Appeals Eligibility Report - ANS C. Security Access Eligibility Report How many days is the initial response time to a Letter of Intent (LOI)?A. 30 daysB. 45 daysC. 15 daysD. 60 days - ANS C. 15 daysWith and additional ability to get 45 days total of 60 15. Who conducts counterintelligence briefings?A. Security ManagerB. Commanding OfficerC. Naval Criminal Investigative Service AgentD. Defense Investigative Service Agent - ANS C. Naval Criminal Investigative Service Agent When a security debriefing has been conducted for a member, what disposition is made of the original Security Termination Statement, OPNAV Form 5511/14?A. Filed in the individual's electronic service recordB. Filed in the classified material records fileC. Forwarded to Director, Naval Investigative ServiceD. Forwarded to the Bureau of Naval Personnel - ANS A. Filed in the individual's electronic service record When the security clearance of a Marine has been revoked for cause, what disposition is madeof the original security termination statement?A. Filed in the individual's service recordB. Filed in the command's files for two yearsC. Forwarded to the Commandant of the Marine CorpsD. Forwarded to Director, Naval Criminal Investigative Service - ANS A. Filed in the individual's service recordB. Filed in the command's files for two yearsC. Forwarded to the Commandant of the Marine CorpsD. Forwarded to Director, Naval Criminal Investigative Service What disposition is made of the security termination statement when the statement is executed at the conclusion of a limited access authorization?A. Filed in the individual's service recordB. Filed in the command's files for two yearsC. Forwarded to the Bureau of Naval PersonnelD. Forwarded to Director, Naval Criminal Investigative Service - ANS B. Filed in the command's files for two years The initial determination of a person's loyalty, reliability, and trustworthiness is based on what investigation?A. SSBIB. NACLCC. SBID. PSI - ANS D. PSIPersonnel Security Investigation How many members sit in on a PSAB Board?A. OneB. TwoC. SixD. Three - ANS D. Three For an SSBI, when should a PR be initiated?A. 4.5 years from completion of the last investigationB. 5 years from completion of last investigationC. Every 3 yearsD. Every 4 years - ANS B. 5 years from completion of last investigation Who is responsible for establishing and maintaining an Information Security Program and Personnel Security Program?A. SECNAV B. OPNAV C. SECDEF D. CJC - ANS A. SECNAV Who is the personnel security adjudicative determination authority for the Department of the Navy personnel?A. OPMB. DODCAFC. AFCAFD. Security manager - ANS B. DODCAFDirector, Department of the Navy Central Adjudication Facility Who will be afforded direct access to the commanding officer to ensure effective management of the command's security program?A. Admin officerB. Executive officerC. Security managerD. Security representative - ANS Security manager For Navy personnel, who should receive a copy of the security manager's designation letter?A. CNO (N09N2) B. OPMC. DODCAFD. NCIS - ANS A. CNO (N09N2) What directive(s) provide the basis of the Navy's program for safeguarding classified information?A. SECNAV M-5510.36 and SECNAV M-5510.30B. SECNAV M-5510.32 and SECNAV M-5516.30C. SECNAVINST 5501.25 and SECNAVINST 5510.22 YSECNAVINST 5510.30 - ANS A. SECNAV M-5510.36 and SECNAV M-5510.30 Who assists commands with queries regarding the status of personnel security investigations at the Office of Personnel Management (OPM) issuing Letters of Intent (LOI) and Letters of Notification (LON)?A. DONB. OPMC. DODCAF D. NCIS - ANS C. DODCAF The Classified Information Non-disclosure Agreement (NDA) is maintained for how many years from the date of signature?A. 75 years B. 65 years C. 70 years D. 50 years - ANS 70 years What form is a written legally binding statement?A. SF-312B. SF-700C. Form 4414 D. SF-701 - ANS C. Form 4414 How often should personnel having access to classified information receive a refresher briefing?A. MonthlyB. QuarterlyC. Semiannually D. Annually - ANS D. Annually What is the DoD's personal security clearance and access database?. DEERS B. DCIIC. JPAS D. OPM - ANS C. JPAS What form is used to ensure all areas that process classified information are properly secured?A. SF 700B. SF 701C. DD 312D. Form 4414 - ANS B. SF 701 How many user levels are there in JPAS?A. Eight B. Ten C. Four D. Nine - ANS D. Nine What item is prohibited in a SCIF?A. Electronic calculators B. Personal cameraC. Heart pacemakerD. Radio - ANS B. Personal camera What authority is authorized to grant, deny, or revoke security clearances for all Department of the Navy personnel?A. OPNAV B. SECNAV C. BUPERS D. DODCAF - ANS D. DODCAF The disclosure of information that could cause exceptionally grave damage to national security should carry what classification?. SecretB. Top Secret C. Confidential D. Guarded - ANS B. Top Secret The Command Security Manager must be a military officer or civilian employee in at least what pay grade?A. GS-9B. GS-7C. GS-5D. GS-11 - ANS A. GS-9 A command accredited for and authorized to receive, process, and store SCI will designate what individual?A. Security ManagerB. Security OfficerC. Special Security OfficerD. Security Representative - ANS C. Special Security Officer AllSCI matters shall be referred to what individual?A. Special Security OfficerB. Command Security ManagerC. Executive officerD. Admin officer - ANS A. Special Security Officer The disclosure of information that could cause exceptionally serious damage to national security should carry what classification?A. SecretB. Top SecretC. ConfidentialD. Sensitive - ANS A. Secret The disclosure of information that could cause identifiable damage to national security should carry what classification?A. SecretB. Top SecretC. ConfidentialD. Interim - ANS C. Confidential Who is responsible for controlling the dissemination of classified material within the command?A. Security ManagerB. Administrative OfficerC. Executive OfficerD. Commanding Officer - ANS D. Commanding Officer Who is delegated the responsibility to ensure personnel are instructed on prevention of unauthorized disclosure of classified information?A. Security ManagerB. Administrative OfficerC. Commanding OfficerD. Executive Officer - ANS A. Security Manager Top Secret documents cannot be reproduced without the permission of what authority?A. Department HeadB. Security ManagerC. Commanding OfficerD. Issuing or higher authority - ANS D. Issuing or higher authority After a Top Secret document has been transferred, downgraded, or destroyed, the record of disclosure should be maintained for how many years?A. OneB. TwoC. ThreeD. Five - ANS B. Two What is the highest classification allowed for mailing classified material via USPS?A. SecretB. Top SecretC. ConfidentialD. Guarded - ANS A. Secret How many officials are required to witness the destruction of Top Secret material?A. OneB. TwoC. ThreeD. Four - ANS B. Two What is the maximum amount of hours a Temporary Secure Working Area (TSWA) can be used?A. 50 hours a monthB. 40 hours a weekC. 50 hours a weekD. 40 hours a month - ANS B. 40 hours a week What does the acronym SAER stand for?A. Security Advanced Eligibility ReportB. Security Access Eligibility ResponseC. Security Access Eligibility ReportD. Security Appeals Eligibility Report - ANS C. Security Access Eligibility Report How many days is the initial response time to a Letter of Intent (LOI)?A. 30 daysB. 45 daysC. 15 daysD. 60 days - ANS C. 15 daysWith and additional ability to get 45 days total of 60 15. Who conducts counterintelligence briefings?A. Security ManagerB. Commanding OfficerC. Naval Criminal Investigative Service AgentD. Defense Investigative Service Agent - ANS C. Naval Criminal Investigative Service Agent When a security debriefing has been conducted for a member, what disposition is made of the original Security Termination Statement, OPNAV Form 5511/14?A. Filed in the individual's electronic service recordB. Filed in the classified material records fileC. Forwarded to Director, Naval Investigative ServiceD. Forwarded to the Bureau of Naval Personnel - ANS A. Filed in the individual's electronic service record When the security clearance of a Marine has been revoked for cause, what disposition is madeof the original security termination statement?A. Filed in the individual's service recordB. Filed in the command's files for two yearsC. Forwarded to the Commandant of the Marine CorpsD. Forwarded to Director, Naval Criminal Investigative Service - ANS A. Filed in the individual's service recordB. Filed in the command's files for two yearsC. Forwarded to the Commandant of the Marine CorpsD. Forwarded to Director, Naval Criminal Investigative Service What disposition is made of the security termination statement when the statement is executed at the conclusion of a limited access authorization?A. Filed in the individual's service recordB. Filed in the command's files for two yearsC. Forwarded to the Bureau of Naval PersonnelD. Forwarded to Director, Naval Criminal Investigative Service - ANS B. Filed in the command's files for two years The initial determination of a person's loyalty, reliability, and trustworthiness is based on what investigation?A. SSBIB. NACLCC. SBID. PSI - ANS D. PSIPersonnel Security Investigation How many members sit in on a PSAB Board?A. OneB. TwoC. SixD. Three - ANS D. Three For an SSBI, when should a PR be initiated?A. 4.5 years from completion of the last investigationB. 5 years from completion of last investigationC. Every 3 yearsD. Every 4 years - ANS B. 5 years from completion of last investigation