Prehospital Emergency Care, 11e (Mistovich et al.) Test bank complete questions/answers (well elaborated) latest updated 2023

Prehospital Emergency Care, 11e (Mistovich et al.) Test bank complete questions/answers (well elaborated) latest updated 2023 What BEST describes the level of EMS training that emphasizes activation of the EMS system and provides immediate care for life-threatening problems? a. Emergency Medical Dispatcher b. Cardiac Care responder c. EMT d. Emergency Medical Responder 2. Which of the following is a personality trait required of EMTs? a. Ability to lift and carry 125 pounds b. Awareness of problems with color vision c. Ability to dominate the patient d. Control of personal habits 3. In 1966 the National Highway Safety Act charged which of the following agencies with the development of emergency medical service standards? a. U.S. Department of Transportation b. U.S. Department of the Interior c. U.S. Department of Health Services d. U.S. Department of Homeland Security 4. Who is responsible for on-scene safety of EMS providers? a. Traffic director b. Law enforcement c. All crew members d. Triage officer 5. Which of the following is the primary responsibility of the EMT? a. Protect and stabilize the patient b. Communicate with other responders on the scene c. Maintain personal health and safety d. Provide emergency care 6. Upon arrival at the hospital, the EMT advises hospital personnel of the patient’s condition, observations from the scene, treatment rendered, and other pertinent data to assure continuity of care. This process is known as which of the following? a. Transfer of care b. Breach of duty c. Definitive care d. End of tour 7. What BEST describes the level of EMS training that emphasizes use of advanced airway devices and some prehospital medication administration? a. Advanced EMT b. Paramedic c. Emergency Medical Responder d. EMT 8. Centralized coordination or emergency medical access, transportation, and care most refers to which of the following? a. Emergency preparedness plan b. Trauma system c. Resource management d. Central management 9. Which of the following best describes training that supplements the EMT’s original training and that is usually taken in regular intervals? a. Distance education b. EMT training program c. Recertification d. Continuing education 10. Which of the following is a personal trait an EMT should demonstrate? a. Self-starter b. Strong student c. Strong communication d. Good eyesight 11. Which of the following BEST describes a communication system capable of identifying the number and location of the phone from which a caller is calling? a. Data display 911 b. Priority dispatch 911 c. Enhanced 911 d. Advanced 911 12. What BEST defines the evaluation of the patient’s condition in order to provide emergency care? a. Patient access b. Patient assessment c. Medical intervention d. Patient advocacy 13. Which of the following is a physical trait necessary for performing the duties of an EMT? a. Nonjudgmental and fair b. Ability to lift and carry 200 pounds c. Ability to speak clearly d. Ability to remain calm in stressful situations 14. What has the modern emergency medical services (EMS) system been developed to provide? a. Prehospital care b. Prompt emergency response c. Safe emergency transportation d. Trained medical personnel 15. Which of the following is the most common gateway for hospital services for patients who need emergency medical assistance? a. Emergency department b. Emergency medical services system c. Surgical services department d. Emergency medical dispatch center 16. Which of the following BEST describes a person who speaks up on behalf of the patient and supports his cause? a. Guardian b. Assistant c. Advocate d. Representative 17. To be compassionate and empathetic, to be accurate with interviews, and to inspire confidence are all examples of which of the personal traits of a quality EMT? a. Able to listen to others b. Pleasant c. Judgmental but fair d. Emotionally stable 18. Which of the following groups is credited with developing the earliest documented emergency medical service? a. The Spanish b. The Egyptians c. The Mayans d. The French 19. What is the minimum level of certification required of ambulance personnel responsible for direct patient care? a. Emergency Medical Technician b. Emergency Medical Responder c. Advanced EMT d. Emergency Ambulance Driver 20. Which of the following BEST describes the purpose of the modern emergency medical services (EMS) system? a. To have trained personnel respond quickly and provide emergency care on the scene, during transport and at the hospital b. To have trained personnel capable of assessing and caring for injured and ill patients on the scene c. To have trained personnel understand the limitations of their raining and “do not harm,” while providing prompt transport to the hospital d. To have trained personnel knowledgeable in all aspects of prehospital care 21. Which of the following refers to a program or process for evaluating and improving the effectiveness of an EMS system? a. Quality improvement b. System effectiveness management c. Process improvement plan d. Total quality system 22. Which of the following agencies is responsible for establishing EMS system assessment programs? a. Department of Health and Human Services (HHS) b. National Transportation Safety Board (NTSD) c. National Highway Traffic Safety Administration (NHTSA) d. United States Health Services Agency (HAS) 23. During the new employee orientation, the training officer meets with the new EMTs and explains to them the monthly training schedule and the classes they must attend for EMT recertification. One of the new EMTs asks the training officer why they have to keep taking EMT courses if they already passed the EMT examination. What is the best answer? a. The state requires the training b. EMTs forget everything once they pass the EMT exam c. It looks good to a jury should the service be sued d. EMS is constantly evolving in response to evidence-based research 24. Which of the following is a component of patient advocacy? a. Immobilizing the neck of a patient with a possible spinal injury b. Granting patient wishes and not reporting spousal abuse to the authorities c. Building rapport with the patient during transport to the hospital d. Providing oxygen to a patient that is short of breath 25. What level of emergency medical training provides the most advanced pre-hospital care? a. Advanced EMT b. Emergency Medical Responder c. Emergency Medical Technician d. Paramedic 26. Which one of these groups is at greatest risk of contracting and transmitting tuberculosis? a. Current and former smokers b. Immunosuppressed patients c. Uranium mine workers d. Healthcare practitioners 27. You are treating a patient who has a productive cough and who reports weight loss, loss of appetite, weakness, night sweats, and fever. Which of the following diseases is most likely the cause of these signs and symptoms? a. Hepatitis B b. Pneumonia c. AIDS d. Tuberculosis 28. Which of the following is the form of stress that can cause immediate and long-term problems with an EMT’s health and well-being? a. Megastress b. Hyperstress c. Distress d. Eustress 29. Which of the following is an accurate statement regarding tuberculosis (TB)? a. The incubation period of TB is from 1 to 7 days b. TB is not spread through surface contamination c. The TB pathogen only affects lung tissue d. A tuberculin skin test can detect TB exposure 30. You respond to a laceration call. When you arrive on-scene, you walk into the house and find a person suffering from a severe wrist laceration from a broken window. Without thinking, you immediately grab the wrist and apply direct pressure to the wound. You then realize that, in your hurry to save a life, you forgot to put on your gloves. You look down to see your hand is covered in blood. When practical, you immediately wash your hands thoroughly. What is your next best action? a. Report the exposure incident because it is the law and you could be fined a large sum of money for failing to report the exposure. b. Report the exposure so you can protect yourself from any accidental infection. c. Report the exposure. Failure to report the exposure may result in you not receiving financial compensation for a potential line-of-duty injury d. If your hand had no open wounds, it is not required to report the exposure as there is no risk of infection, and you could get in trouble at work for failure to follow policy. 31. What is the name of the federal act that mandates a procedure by which emergency healthcare providers can find out if they have been exposed to potentially life-threatening diseases while on the job? a. Communicable Disease Notification Act b. EMS Personnel Health Protection Act of 1991 c. Occupational Exposure to Bloodborne Pathogens Act d. Ryan White CARE Act 32. During which of these situations would the EMT be least likely to experience a body substance exposure? a. Bandage a laceration b. Childbirth c. Splinting a sprained ankle d. Glucometry 33. What is a common term used to describe the items needed for standard precautions or body substance isolation precautious? a. Harm-reduction strategy b. Exposure-control equipment c. Personnel protective equipment d. Infection-control plan 34. The CDC recommends using an alcohol-based hand sanitizer in all except which of the following situations(s)? a. The patient has a bloodborne communicable disease b. The patient has a respiratory illness c. The provider is not vaccinated against hepatitis B d. The provider’s hands come into contact with fecal matter. 35. Due to the high risk of an unstable work environment, EMTs responding to a motor vehicle crash may consider using in addition to standard PPE. a. N-95 masks b. Heavy-duty gloves c. Face shields d. Level B hazmat suits 36. Which of the following terms is best defined as “a state of physical and/or psychological arousal to a stimulus?” a. Homeostat b. Distress c. Stress d. Eustress 37. What are the minimum Standard Precautions an EMT should take when transporting a patient infected with Middle East Respiratory Syndrome (MERS)? a. Gloves, N-95 mask, and goggles b. Gloves c. Gloves and N-95 mask d. Gloves, N-95 mask, goggles, and gown 38. What mode of transmission most accurately describes the route of spreading hepatitis A? a. Respiratory droplet b. Unproteced sex c. Fecal-oral d. Bloodborne 39. Which of the following pathogens can live in dried blood for days and should be a major concern for EMS providers even while cleaning contaminated equipment? a. Tuberculosis b. Hepatitis B c. Hepatitis A d. AIDS 40. Which of the following statements about HIV/AIDS is true? a. HIV positive needlesticks have a 30 percent infection rate b. The HIV virus lives longer outside the body than Hepatitis B c. HIV positive needlesticks have less than a 0.05 percent infection rate d. Drugs are not available that slow HIV from progressing into AIDS 41. You are called to an assault on a homeless male. Dried blood from the trauma is visible around the patient’s mouth and nose. During the assessment you note the patient has a productive cough. The patient says, “Don’t worry, I’m not contagious. I’ve had this cough for a year.” Describe the best approach regarding respiratory isolation. a. Isolate the patient with a nonrebreather mask b. Mask yourself and the patient c. Mask yourself only d. Use gloves for PPE, as that is all needed 42. Which of the following descriptions BEST defines the term pathogen? a. An immunity developed after an exposure b. A study of the origins of infection and disease c. A medication with a harmful effect d. An organism that causes infection and disease 43. Which of the following is true regarding proper hand cleaning? a. Soap and water should be used following any patient contact if the EMT does not wear gloves b. If the EMT’s hands are visibly dirty, an alcohol-based hand cleaner is not sufficient. c. In cases where soap and water and alcohol-based hand cleaners are not immediately available, bleach wipes should be used. d. Following patient contact, the EMT should soak his hands in warm soapy water for at least 30 seconds and then shake them vigorously. 44. When the potential exists for exposure to exhaled air of a person with suspected or confirmed TB, a(n), mask should be worn by the EMT. a. Surgical b. B-50 c. Nonrebreather d. N-95 45. An EMT should considered wearing protective eyewear when caring for which of these patients? a. A patient with a difficult-to-visualize scalp laceration b. A trauma patient who is covered in dirt, rocks, and other foreign debris c. A patient who is actively coughing d. A patient who was spraying with mace by police during arrest 46. What would be the primary reason for an EMT to change gloves between contact with different patients? a. To protect the EMT from becoming infected b. To minimize the amount of time the EMT’s hands are spent in gloves c. To ensure soiled gloves are changed as soon as possible d. To prevent spreading infection to the next patient 47. All of the following are ways that an EMT can increase both physical and mental well-being, except: a. Drinking caffeine instead of alcohol b. Following a regular walking regimen c. Spending more time relaxing with friends and family d. Eating more carbohydrates 48. Healthcare employers are required by law to provide a hepatitis B available to employees free of charge. a. Prophylaxis b. Vaccine c. Cure d. Immunity 49. When covering a patient’s mouth and nose with a mask of any kind, which of the following is the primary risk? a. Causing or exasperating respiratory illnesses b. Interfering with patient communication c. Upsetting the patient because of the social stigma d. Obstructing the ability to visualize and protect the airway 50. The tuberculin skin test (TST), formerly known as the purified protein derivative (PPD) test, is used to: a. Determine if a person has infected others with TB b. Detect a person’s exposure to tuberculosis c. Inculcate healthcare workers against TB infections d. Prevent tuberculosis from spreading following an exposure 51. Which of the following best describes body mechanisms? a. Proper use of the body to protect patient safety b. Proper use of the body to facilitate lifting and moving objects c. Equipment designed to minimize stress on the user’s body d. Both B and C 52. What should you NOT do when using a stair chair? a. Lean forward from the hips b. Keep your back straight c. Lean forward from the wrist d. Flex your knees 53. You have responded to a nursing home and find an elderly patient in his bed in cardiac arrest. Which type of move would you perform to get the patient to a hard surface so you can perform chest compression? a. Non-urgent move b. Clothing drag c. Urgent move d. Emergency move 54. Which of the following statements regarding body mechanics is true? a. Use your back to lift b. Use your legs to lift c. Twist your torso while lifting d. Position your feet close together 55. You have responded to a multiple casualty incident involving an overturned bus. Patients have been thrown around the interior of the bus and several are piled on top of each other. What type of move would you perform to gain access to the most critically injured patients? a. Non-urgent move b. Extremity lift c. Urgent move d. Emergency move 56. You respond to a call at a park where you find a 550-pound patient who has fallen down a slope near a creek. As you and your partner discuss the situation, you decide to call a second unit for lifting assistance. Once the patient is on a stretcher, how would the additional two personnel help in this lift? a. You place one person on each corner of the stretcher to balance the weight and share in the lifting b. They would position themselves half-way up the slope to take over when you and your partner get fatigued c. You will place two persons at the foot, one at the head, and the other to act as a safety anchor with a rope d. You will place two persons at the head of the stretcher, one at the foot, and one to act as a spotter 57. What is the preferred number of rescuers when using a stair chair? a. Two: one in front and one in back b. Only one with the track-like chair