CPSS Study Guide Exam 433 Questions with Verified Answers,100% CORRECT

CPSS Study Guide Exam 433 Questions with Verified Answers What does an Excludes1 note mean in ICD-10? - CORRECT ANSWER The code excluded should never be used. What is used at the end of an ICD-10 diagnosis code to indicate additional digits are required? - CORRECT ANSWER Dashes When coding services for eyelids, and the condition affects all four eyelids, separate codes must be assigned for all four eyelids. - CORRECT ANSWER False In the Alphabetic Index, ______ are used to identify manifestation codes. - CORRECT ANSWER Brackets In ICD-10, what is meant by a "family" of codes? - CORRECT ANSWER Any 3-character category The term used in ICD-10 to represent a consequence of a previous disease or injury is: - CORRECT ANSWER Sequela. What is the maximum number of characters that an ICD-10 code can contain? - CORRECT ANSWER 7 When an Excludes2 note appears in ICD-10, it means: - CORRECT ANSWER The two codes can be reported together. In ICD-10, a placeholder ______ is used to allow for future expansion in codes that require seven digits. - CORRECT ANSWER "X" What was the biggest change in the structure of ICD-10 that did not exist in ICD-9 codes? - CORRECT ANSWER Laterality What agency is responsible for oversight and compliance of ICD-10? - CORRECT ANSWER Centers for Medicare and Medicaid Services For ambulatory surgery coding, always select the diagnosis code from the preoperative diagnosis shown on the operative report. - CORRECT ANSWER False In ICD-10, the Diseases of Eye and Adnexa are included in Chapter _____. - CORRECT ANSWER 7 In ICD-10, the "A - Initial Encounter," "D - Subsequent Encounter," and "S - Sequela" are always shown as the _____ character. - CORRECT ANSWER 7th In ICD-10, the term "senile" cataract has been replaced with: - CORRECT ANSWER Age-related cataract . How is a glaucoma stage reported in ICD-10? - CORRECT ANSWER The stage must be identified by a seventh-character numeric code In ICD-10, diagnosis codes should be assigned based on the diagnosis shown in the fee slip. - CORRECT ANSWER False What group is responsible for creating and publishing the ICD-10 codes? - CORRECT ANSWER World Health Organization In ICD-10, the Tabular List is a list of: - CORRECT ANSWER Codes arranged in chronological order. The acronym "ICD" in ICD-10 stands for: - CORRECT ANSWER International Classification of Diseases In most cases, a patient's initial encounter with the practice is: - CORRECT ANSWER By telephone. Which of the following telephone techniques will help create a positive image for the practice? - CORRECT ANSWER Implementing a two-ring rule. Always make sure the phone is answered before the third ring. Acknowledging the caller by name. Minimizing customer hold time and frequently returning to reassure the caller that he/she has not been forgotten. If the recipient of a call is on the phone, it is best to alert the recipient that a call is holding, as the call may be expected. - CORRECT ANSWER True The basic components of effective telephone communication include which of the following: - CORRECT ANSWER Answering the telephone. Transferring calls.Placing calls on hold. If you call a patient and reach his/her voicemail, it is best to only leave your name and phone number - CORRECT ANSWER False Which of the following is most important to meet patient demands and be successful in today's highly competitive market? - CORRECT ANSWER Respond to patient questions, concerns, or complaints with a positive and professional attitude A neutral tone of voice may be perceived to indicate the person is bored, tired, indifferent, detached, or unenthusiastic - CORRECT ANSWER True Which of the following actions will help you portray a positive image on the telephone? - CORRECT ANSWER Focus on each caller with engaged listening. Use positive language and display kindness over the phone. Replace negative thoughts with positive solutions-oriented ones. It is best to use which of the following actions if you are on another call when the telephone rings: - CORRECT ANSWER Ask permission of the existing caller to be placed on hold while you answer the other telephone line. Which of the following are traits of successful telephone staff? - CORRECT ANSWER Putting a smile in one's voice. Being authentic and sincere with all callers The ciliary processes secrete fluid in the eye, which is called aqueous humor. - CORRECT ANSWER True With age, the lens becomes thick, hard, and non-transparent, causing impaired sight. What is this condition called? - CORRECT ANSWER Cataract An area of the retina known as the macula provides the clearest and most detailed vision. - CORRECT ANSWER True Light enters the interior of the eye through the pupil. - CORRECT ANSWER True Choose the three layers of the tear film. - CORRECT ANSWER Oily,Watery,Mucin Which tissue regulates the amount of light entering the eye? - CORRECT ANSWER Cornea Which tissue is located at the back of the eye and converts light to electric impulses, which are carried to the brain? - CORRECT ANSWER Retina Impaired drainage of the aqueous humor leads to a rise in intraocular pressure which can damage the retinal nerves. What is this condition called? - CORRECT ANSWER Glaucoma The sclera is also referred to as which of the following? - CORRECT ANSWER The white of the eye The following are all true about a subconjunctival hemorrhage except: - CORRECT ANSWER It usually results in loss of vision. The following is true of epiphora (excess tearing): - CORRECT ANSWER . It is typically due to dry eyes. The definition of "triage" is: - CORRECT ANSWER A system establishing the order in which to carry out acts of medical assistance in an emergency. The most important condition to rule out in a case of painful lid swelling is:The most important condition to rule out in a case of painful lid swelling is: - CORRECT ANSWER Orbital cellulitis. The following symptoms all warrant same-day evaluation except: - CORRECT ANSWER Itching In a penetrating injury to the eye: - CORRECT ANSWER Instruct the patient to leave the object in the eye. Complications of blunt trauma to the eye include all except: - CORRECT ANSWER Hyperopia All of the following can cause flashing lights, except: - CORRECT ANSWER Uveitis A "Droopy Eyelid" is not an emergency unless accompanied by: - CORRECT ANSWER Sudden vision loss. Diplopia. Pain. In a chemical splash injury, the first thing you should instruct the patient to do is: - CORRECT ANSWER . Immediately flush out the eye with water for 10-15 minutes. The following symptoms can be scheduled in the next available time slot except: - CORRECT ANSWER Pain The following are true of orbital cellulitis, except: - CORRECT ANSWER It is more common than preseptal cellulitis. If a patient complains of a headache, the following associated symptoms may indicate an emergency, except: - CORRECT ANSWER Long-standing diplopia Patients complaining of discharge from their eyes in combination with an upper respiratory infection require evaluation for: - CORRECT ANSWER Adenovirus Mucous discharge may represent all of the following except: - CORRECT ANSWER Viral infection. The most important condition to rule out in a case of painful lid swelling is: - CORRECT ANSWER Orbital cellulitis The following statements about double vision are true except: - CORRECT ANSWER Binocular diplopia presents only when a patient has one eye open. All of the following are examples of alkalis that can cause eye burns, except: - CORRECT ANSWER Battery Acid. The following is true of blepharospasm except: - CORRECT ANSWER . The patient can be considered legally blind due to eye damage in severe cases The following are all common causes of lid twitching except: - CORRECT ANSWER Hyperopia The posterior chamber is: - CORRECT ANSWER Behind the iris and in front of vitreous face. The eyeball consists of which of the following layers? - CORRECT ANSWER Fibrous layer,Vascular layer,Nerve layer The temporal fibers of the optic nerve do not cross, while nasal fibers do cross at the optic chiasm. - CORRECT ANSWER True The extraocular muscle that does NOT originate at the annulus of Zinn is the _____. - CORRECT ANSWER . Inferior oblique The structure of the eye that continues to grow throughout life is the _____. - CORRECT ANSWER Lens The aqueous humor exits the anterior chamber through the drainage structure located in the _____. - CORRECT ANSWER . Angle. Name the anatomical structure that gives shape and rigidity to the eyelid. - CORRECT ANSWER Tarsal plate The main depressor of the eyelids is: - CORRECT ANSWER Obicularis The Visual Pathway begins at the _____. - CORRECT ANSWER Retina The structure which does NOT make up transparent ocular media is the _____. - CORRECT ANSWER Iris. The area in the retina that represents the physiologic blind spot is: - CORRECT ANSWER Orbital floor Which of the following is NOT a layer of the cornea? - CORRECT ANSWER Broadman's area The cranial nerve responsible for AFFERENT pupillary reflex is: - CORRECT ANSWER CN II The vascular layer of the eye consists of the _____. - CORRECT ANSWER Ciliary body, Iris, Choroid. Accommodation and aqueous production are a function of the: - CORRECT ANSWER Ciliary Body The area susceptible to blunt trauma of the orbit is: - CORRECT ANSWER Orbital floor The primary lifting of the upper lid is performed by _____. - CORRECT ANSWER The levator muscle The junction between the cornea and sclera is the _____. - CORRECT ANSWER Limbus. The functions of the orbit are to provide protection, support, and attachment of the cranial nerves. - CORRECT ANSWER False Which of the following is hydrophobic? - CORRECT ANSWER Epithelium Which of the following statements are true? - CORRECT ANSWER The way you interact with others communicates your respect (or lack thereof) to them.Everyone who works in our office wants and deserves to have respect.a. The fewer interpersonal conflicts we have in our office, the more productive and happier we will be as a staff. You can say the same exact words and have two different meanings. What percent of our message is contained in the words we use? - CORRECT ANSWER 7% If a co-worker said to you, "Quit putting those charts on my part of the counter. You're always crowding my space!" which of the following would be a way of encouraging an Adult-to-Adult interaction? - CORRECT ANSWER I'm sorry, I didn't realize they were in your way. Where do you put the charts you are working on?" Which of the following would be the Adult response to the accusation, "I can't do my job, because you've never showed me how to enter new patients into the computer like you were supposed to." - CORRECT ANSWER "Let's spend a few minutes this afternoon, and I will train you how to do that." If a person seems to think they are superior to their co-workers, which life position are they most likely to have? - CORRECT ANSWER I'm not ok, you're ok Which of the following are reasons that the "I'm ok, you're ok" position is the most productive? - CORRECT ANSWER . It allows us to be in our Adult state of mind most of the time. It allows us to show respect for others.It allows us to give and receive positive strokes.It helps us interact positively with others. Which of the following describes the relationship between the concepts of Parent, Adult, and Child states of mind, strokes, and life positions? - CORRECT ANSWER The "I'm ok, you're ok" life position allows us to be in our Adult state of mind so that we can give and receive positive strokes and more accurately deal with negative strokes.The "I'm not ok, you're ok" life position tends to lead us to be in our Parent or Child mode and to give negative strokes to others. The three states of mind are: - CORRECT ANSWER Parent, Adult, Child Which of the following contain recordings of authoritative pronouncements that we heard as a child? - CORRECT ANSWER Our Parent state of mind Which of the following contain the recordings of the feelings we had as we experienced events in our life? - CORRECT ANSWER Our Child state of mind Which of the following allows us to choose how we - CORRECT ANSWER Our Adult state of mind In our Adult state of mind, we can decide whether to ______, ______ or _____ a critical comment aimed at us. - CORRECT ANSWER Accept, reject or modify If someone said "You're not the boss of me," which state of mind would they most likely be in? - CORRECT ANSWER The Child If you heard the following, which state of mind would be reflected? "You shouldn't just sit there waiting to be told what to do next. You need to quit being lazy and help us out." - CORRECT ANSWER The Parent For human beings, even strokes that are very negative are better than no strokes at all. - CORRECT ANSWER True OSHA Stands for - CORRECT ANSWER occupational safety and health administration what is the max amount of time a patient should be left on hold before someone check in with them - CORRECT ANSWER 10 sec cataract sx requires an overnight stay in a hospital - CORRECT ANSWER false bifocals lenses are - CORRECT ANSWER lenses with 2 different focal powers an ASC is an ambulatory sx center - CORRECT ANSWER true which of following equipment is not commonly used in a laser refractive procedures - CORRECT ANSWER phaco oculoplastics is an area of specialty for - CORRECT ANSWER ophthalmologist what is OSHA Primary goal - CORRECT ANSWER protects employees in work place the difficulty with triaging headaches is that in rare cases, a headache could indicate a life-threatening condition - CORRECT ANSWER true what common household products is used to kill blood-borne pathogens - CORRECT ANSWER bleach covered entities under HIPAA include - CORRECT ANSWER health care professionals, health care facilities medicare will reimburse practices for refractions - CORRECT ANSWER false which of the following is most likely used to help monitor glaucoma - CORRECT ANSWER visual field devices used to correct refractive errors are - CORRECT ANSWER glasses and contacts lenses the number of exemption each employee claims on his/her w-4 form helps determine how much_is withheld from each paycheck - CORRECT ANSWER federal tax which of the following actions help to portray a positive image on the telephone - CORRECT ANSWER all of the above in most states, a nonexempt employee is eligible for overtime pay for hours worked in excess of 40hrs per week - CORRECT ANSWER true the following symptoms can be scheduled in the next available time slot except - CORRECT ANSWER pain a patient desiring to have a change in glasses whose only complaint is difficulty with near vision should be scheduled - CORRECT ANSWER next available appt a patient with complaints of blurred vision for about three months should be scheduled - CORRECT ANSWER next available appt which government department enforces medicare rules and regulations - CORRECT ANSWER centers for medicare and medicaid services od - CORRECT ANSWER right bid - CORRECT ANSWER twice a day ha - CORRECT ANSWER headache QID - CORRECT ANSWER four times a day qd - CORRECT ANSWER once a day qhs - CORRECT ANSWER at night Pt - CORRECT ANSWER patient os - CORRECT ANSWER left eye R/O - CORRECT ANSWER rule out ou - CORRECT ANSWER both eyes an eye care professional licensed to fabricate and dispense eye glasses is an - CORRECT ANSWER optician a routine eye exam is likely to be covered under major medical insurance - CORRECT ANSWER false the world meaning to enlarge or cause to expand is - CORRECT ANSWER dilate the word meaning currently happening - CORRECT ANSWER occurring a physician and surgeon who specializes in treatment and surgery of the eye is an - CORRECT ANSWER ophthalmologist patient registration process are normally completed - CORRECT ANSWER upon check in in most cases the patients initial encounter with the practice is - CORRECT ANSWER by telephone The primary goal of the ophthalmic practice should be to: - CORRECT ANSWER Provide quality medical eye care for patients Which of the following are characteristics of a winning team? - CORRECT ANSWER All of the above A team is a group of people who work together in an ophthalmic practice. It is automatically a team because all of the team members are employed by the practice. - CORRECT ANSWER False Ethical treatment of patients depends on fair treatment of patients without regard to race, religion, financial status, sex, or ethnicity. - CORRECT ANSWER True The financial success of the practice depends on: - CORRECT ANSWER All of the above. Which of the following IS NOT a responsibility for a staff member in providing quality customer service? - CORRECT ANSWER Interrupt patients when they talk too long because the practice is running behind When dealing with unhappy patients, always apologize, even if you do not agree with their point of view. - CORRECT ANSWER True When communicating with patients, openly express your feelings, even if they are negative. - CORRECT ANSWER False Many patients change physicians because of dissatisfaction in their treatment by the physician and/or staff members. - CORRECT ANSWER True Which of the following are examples of excellent customer service? - CORRECT ANSWER Smile, make eye contact, and address patients by name. Be a good listener. Be courteous. The person at checkout never has to balance receipts collected to a patient payment log. This work is done by the data entry staff member who posts charges and payments. - CORRECT ANSWER False Superbills or encounter forms are most commonly used to: - CORRECT ANSWER Record diagnosis and procedural codes Patient receipts should be used: - CORRECT ANSWER To provide an immediate receipt for all patients. A "clean claim" expedites the payment process because it: - CORRECT ANSWER Has no obvious errors and can be processed quickly by the insurance company without claim resubmission. It is ideal for only one staff member to be responsible for all collection processes in the practice. - CORRECT ANSWER False In most practices the coding of office visits is done by: - CORRECT ANSWER The provider and/or scribe ICD-10 and CPT codes must correspond because: - CORRECT ANSWER Payers will deny payments if diagnosis and procedure codes do not match. The responsibilities of checkout DO NOT include which of the following? - CORRECT ANSWER Retrieving the patient's chart from storage ICD-10 codes are used to describe procedures and testing performed in the office. - CORRECT ANSWER False It is ideal for audits to take place after the claims have been submitted so that extra time and effort will not be required to correct them and, hopefully, the mistakes will not be recognized. - CORRECT ANSWER False When coding errors are identified, the auditor should: - CORRECT ANSWER Use the errors as a training opportunity to improve coding accuracy The staff member auditing charts focuses on which of the following areas - CORRECT ANSWER All of these End-of-the-day responsibilities for the data entry clerk include which of the following? - CORRECT ANSWER Balancing totals for payments posted into the practice management system with receipt totals and patient log amounts At the conclusion of each encounter, the patient should: - CORRECT ANSWER Stop at the checkout desk to determine payment status. Incorrect use of CPT codes can result in lost revenues and possible fines. - CORRECT ANSWER True The acronym "EOB" represents: - CORRECT ANSWER Explanation of benefits EOBs are used by: - CORRECT ANSWER Posting/Billing staff Which of the following information is used in compiling the daily balance sheet? - CORRECT ANSWER All of these When processing payments received from insurance companies via mail, it is important to: - CORRECT ANSWER All of these When checks are received and cannot be applied to a patient's account because of lack of information (unapplied cash), the practice: - CORRECT ANSWER Deposits the check in the "unapplied cash" account and calls the issuing agent of the check to identify the correct patient Direct remittance is an option provided by some practice management systems in which a Medicare check can be downloaded directly into the practice management system and automatically posts payments to specific patient accounts. - CORRECT ANSWER True The daily deposit includes which of the following? - CORRECT ANSWER Mail receipts In large practices, the posting of all payments usually is the responsibility of one person in the billing department. - CORRECT ANSWER False Maximizing practice collections is the responsibility of the entire staff. - CORRECT ANSWER True Which of the following is not a process used by the practice in processing direct deposits from insurance companies, Medicare, and Medicaid? - CORRECT ANSWER Include the amounts from direct deposits in the daily deposit All checks received by mail should be processed within 24 hours of receipt. - CORRECT ANSWER True Lockbox arrangements with banks are helpful to some practices in order to: - CORRECT ANSWER Provide security for checks and rapid deposit of funds EOBs should be: - CORRECT ANSWER Stored for future reference based on practice policy or local regulations Daily backup tapes are used to protect data in case of power failure or other damage to stored data. - CORRECT ANSWER True How many staff members are responsible for compiling all of the daily work that has been processed into a single balance sheet? - CORRECT ANSWER One staff member Which of the following forms is not usually requested during the registration process? - CORRECT ANSWER Patient's credit score In multi-physician practices, the appointment scheduler can schedule the patient for an appointment with any physician for any reason. - CORRECT ANSWER False Patient registration processes are normally completed: - CORRECT ANSWER Upon check-in. It is important to follow scheduling templates when scheduling patient appointments in order to: - CORRECT ANSWER Control the schedule so that patients are seen efficiently and in a timely manner. If the patient registers without noting a ZIP code, this most likely means: - CORRECT ANSWER Possible future delays in receiving payment from the patient if it is not obtained Registration information should be: - CORRECT ANSWER Routinely reviewed for each patient upon arrival If the patient arrives for an appointment without necessary insurance authorization: - CORRECT ANSWER An attempt is made to obtain the authorization, so that the patient can be seen. The appointment process is relevant to effective collections because: - CORRECT ANSWER Patients must be scheduled with the correct physician and for the correct reason. Scheduling patient appointments by documenting the appointment in a computerized practice management system offers the advantage of efficient integration with human resources. - CORRECT ANSWER False The patient's chart usually is prepared prior to the patient's visit. - CORRECT ANSWER True The patient registration form usually is completed upon arrival to the office and requests which of the following information? - CORRECT ANSWER All of the above When scheduling a patient for an appointment, which of the following data should be documented? - CORRECT ANSWER Patient's full address with ZIP code It is important to confirm patient appointments prior to the scheduled appointment in order to: - CORRECT ANSWER Limit the number of no-shows and last-minute cancellations Credit balances on accounts in which the patient cannot be located: - CORRECT ANSWER Must be forwarded to the state, subject to disposition as unclaimed property. Refunds due to Medicare/Medicaid should be: - CORRECT ANSWER Paid within 60 days of overpayment. Ideally, the patient and applicable payer should be billed for services: - CORRECT ANSWER As soon as possible In recent years, billing processes have become: - CORRECT ANSWER More reliant on automated processes. Within the practice information system, patient statements usually are divided by: - CORRECT ANSWER Alphabetical order of last names Cash management is a term referring to - CORRECT ANSWER Appropriate safekeeping of practice revenue. Electronic processing of claims greatly increases the speed of payment from third-party payers. - CORRECT ANSWER True Primary responsibility for effective policy implementation rests on: - CORRECT ANSWER The billing supervisor. When a practice receives checks for insufficient funds, the practice often adds bank processing fees to the amount owed by the patient. - CORRECT ANSWER True Unless unusual circumstances dictate otherwise, patients with outstanding accounts should receive a statement: - CORRECT ANSWER . Once per month. Which of the following information is required for claims processing? - CORRECT ANSWER . All of these Financial assessment of accounts receivable performance should be: - CORRECT ANSWER Measured monthly within the practice. The FDCPA: - CORRECT ANSWER Technically applies to third-party collectors, but practices should conform whenever possible. All unpaid accounts are sent to a collection agency after 120 days. - CORRECT ANSWER False Where observed collection processes differ from practice policy: - CORRECT ANSWER Either the policy or process must be changed, or retraining must occur to comply with practice policy. Which of the following functions are performed in the Business Office? - CORRECT ANSWER Patient billing,Patient check-out,Data entry An exempt employee is defined as someone who is most commonly paid an hourly wage. - CORRECT ANSWER False Which of the following best describes Worker's Compensation Insurance? - CORRECT ANSWER Insurance coverage that is provided at no charge to employees for injury or illness sustained in the course of employment Which of the following describes OSHA's (Occupational Safety and Health Administration's) primary goal? - CORRECT ANSWER Protects employees in the workplace The Privacy Rule is the first national regulation on medical privacy and health information management. - CORRECT ANSWER True By law, employers are required to withhold which of the following from employee wages? - CORRECT ANSWER Payroll taxes The Clinic is responsible for work functions the patient normally does not see, such as janitorial services, mail delivery, chart preparation, etc. - CORRECT ANSWER False HIPAA is the acronym for which of the following? - CORRECT ANSWER Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act Patient Services staff are responsible for answering phones, greeting patients when they arrive, and obtaining their contact and insurance information. - CORRECT ANSWER True Which of the following best describes the function of the Administration Department in the ophthalmology office? - CORRECT ANSWER Coordinates all business functions of the practice, as well as staff oversight and management Medicare Recovery Audit Contractors have the right to retrospectively audit medical records for how many years? - CORRECT ANSWER 3 years Medicare payers publish medical policies on their individual websites that provide documentation and billing guidelines for services rendered by providers. These guidelines should be reviewed on a regular basis for updated information and are called what? - CORRECT ANSWER Local Coverage Determinations In order for a new physician to see Medicare patients, the physician must first enroll in the Medicare program as a participating or non-participating provider. Medicare has an electronic enrollment system to assist providers in completing the enrollment forms more efficiently called the: - CORRECT ANSWER Provider Enrollment, Chain, and Ownership System How often does Medicare require patients sign a Patient Authorization form? - CORRECT ANSWER Once per lifetime Reimbursement for physician services provided under Medicare Part B is paid for by the federal government through contracts with different insurance companies. What are those contracted entities called? - CORRECT ANSWER Medicare Administrative Contractors Medicare requires that patients be informed in advance when a provider believes that a normally covered service may not be covered under certain circumstances. The form which must be signed by the patient is called what? - CORRECT ANSWER ABN In a Medicare audit, which of the following patient statements would deem an office visit routine and not billable to Medicare? - CORRECT ANSWER am here for my annual eye exam and glasses check.. In order to treat patients effectively, a physician may have allied staff perform certain diagnostic tests. Before the test can be performed by the technician, what must be documented in the patient chart? - CORRECT ANSWER Order for the test New patient exams are exempt from global fee periods and do not require a modifier to get paid the same day as a procedure. - CORRECT ANSWER TRUE Under Medicare's global surgical fee concept, most services performed following surgery are included in the global fee payment and not billable separately. A physician may, however, bill Medicare separately for: - CORRECT ANSWER Diagnostic tests required to treat the patient. When auditing medical records, Medicare auditors generally have no preference as to the method a physician uses for documeer for the testnting a patient chart. - CORRECT ANSWER Order for the test The Medicare Physician Fee Schedule Database (MPFSD) includes fee calculations based on work expense, practice expense, and malpractice expense which are used in determining payments to physicians. Those figures are referred to as what? - CORRECT ANSWER Relative Value Units This 10-digit number is assigned to providers to be used for identification purposes when submitting services to Medicare for payment: - CORRECT ANSWER Provider Identification Number When billing Medicare, what is the definition of "deductible?" - CORRECT ANSWER The amount the patient is financially responsible for before Medicare provides payment What is the standard claim form used to submit provider services to Medicare Part B? - CORRECT ANSWER CMS-1500 Before billing a Medicare patient, the provider must have a Patient Authorization or Assignment of Benefits form signed by the patient to: - CORRECT ANSWER Inform Medicare the physician has right to bill for covered services. In order to be paid by Medicare, timely claims filing must occur within: - CORRECT ANSWER 12 months. What does the Office of Inspector General (OIG) release annually that identifies areas of focus for review and investigation they believe are the most vulnerable for possible fraud/abuse? - CORRECT ANSWER Inform Medicare the physician has right to bill for covered services. Which of the following would CMS constitute as fraud? - CORRECT ANSWER . Billing a more extensive service than actually performed. The Centers for Medicare and Medicaid Services (CMS), in conjunction with the National Correct Coding Institute, developed the Correct Coding Initiative (CCI) bundling edits which are used by Medicare providers to: - CORRECT ANSWER Control improper coding of claims billed When auditing medical records, Medicare auditors generally have no preference as to the method a physician uses for documenting a patient chart. - CORRECT ANSWER FALSE what does the office of inspector general release annually that identifies areas of focus for review and investigation for possible fraud and abuse - CORRECT ANSWER work plan Which part of the patient examination tests for gross measurement of peripheral vision, range of motion and function of eye muscles, and evaluates the size, shape, and reaction of the pupils? - CORRECT ANSWER External Exam The portion of the examination that determines the best lens correction for the patient, and may result in a prescription for glasses is called: - CORRECT ANSWER Refraction In order for the physician to clearly see the details of the back of the eye (retina), patients are given drops that make the pupil larger. This process is called: - CORRECT ANSWER Dilation The measurement documenting the patient's current spectacle prescription is called: - CORRECT ANSWER Lensometry A numerical value associated with the smallest objects a patient can see on a specific chart at a specific distance is called: - CORRECT ANSWER Visual Acuity The examination of the back of the eye is called the: - CORRECT ANSWER Fundus Examination A patient will be asked for their chief complaint and symptoms of their current problem during which portion of the eye exam? - CORRECT ANSWER History The measurement of intraocular pressure is called: - CORRECT ANSWER tonometry test The lids and eyelashes, the conjunctiva, the cornea, iris, lens and vitreous are evaluated during which portion of the eye exam? - CORRECT ANSWER Slit Lamp Examination Which of the following should be disposed of in a red biohazardous bag? - CORRECT ANSWER Used gauze saturated with blood Which of the following should be avoided where there is a likelihood of occupational exposure? - CORRECT ANSWER Eating. OSHA stands for: - CORRECT ANSWER Occupational Safety and Health Administration. What is PPE? - CORRECT ANSWER Personal Protective Equipment. The Bloodborne Pathogens Standard requires the practice to have written guidelines for the employees' protection and reference. These guidelines are referred to as: - CORRECT ANSWER Exposure Control Plan (ECP). Immunization is provided for employees with occupational exposure for what disease? - CORRECT ANSWER Hepatitis B. Spill kits contain all but one of the following: - CORRECT ANSWER Blanket. If there is uncertainty as to how to handle a blood spill, the most important action is to: - CORRECT ANSWER Notify your manager When referring to a theory of universal precautions for infection control: - CORRECT ANSWER All blood and other potentially infectious materials are handled as if they were known to be infectious Labels must now include new information including: - CORRECT ANSWER Product identifier. If a chemical has multiple hazards, only the pictogram of the most damaging hazard will be displayed on the label. - CORRECT ANSWER False Training on the revised Hazard Communication Standard must begin by and end by which of the following dates? - CORRECT ANSWER Beginning December 1, 2013 and ending June 1, 2016 What is the single most important method to prevent the spread of infection? - CORRECT ANSWER Washing your hands. The Bloodborne Pathogens Standard is one of several standards established by the federal government. The enforcement agency for compliance with the Bloodborne Pathogens Standard is: - CORRECT ANSWER . OSHA. The two new changes in the HCS are: - CORRECT ANSWER SDS and label elements. The following color is used to identify biohazardous material: - CORRECT ANSWER red An example of a contaminated sharp would be: - CORRECT ANSWER A used scalpel Which of the following is considered PPE? - CORRECT ANSWER Surgical mask. Pictograms used on labels must be: - CORRECT ANSWER Set in the shape of a square with a red outline, black symbol, and white background A common household product that can be used to kill bloodborne pathogens is: - CORRECT ANSWER Bleach. an eye care provider licensed to diagnose and treat diseases of the eye and to preform eye sx is an - CORRECT ANSWER ophthalmologist progressive lenses are - CORRECT ANSWER lenses with three different focal powers with no visible lines the corneal topographer is a device used to measure - CORRECT ANSWER curvature of the cornea according to osha a place of broken plastic with infectious material on it constitutes a - CORRECT ANSWER exposure incident the nerve fiber analyzer is a device used to determine - CORRECT ANSWER status of optic nerve prism is the special formatting of the optical center of the lenses to reduce double vision or imbalance in vision - CORRECT ANSWER true the family medical leave act (fmla) is a program that allows employees to have protected leave when unable to work because of - CORRECT ANSWER person illness, serious illness, birth of a child in the family single vision lenses are - CORRECT ANSWER lenses with only one focal point which of the following gives workers who lose health benefits right to choose to continue group health benefits provided by their group plans for limited periods of time under certain circumstances such as job loss, reduction in hours, transition between jobs - CORRECT ANSWER COBRA The word meaning to get - CORRECT ANSWER receive if a patient declines to sign an acknowledge of the practice's NPP staff is obligated to - CORRECT ANSWER documenting that the patient declined to sign the cost associated with part c plans varies depending on - CORRECT ANSWER the benefits the plan provides a slit lamp is - CORRECT ANSWER a microscope used by the physician in examine the patient's eyes in most cases, the patient's initial encounter with the practice is - CORRECT ANSWER by telephone an eye care provider licensed to diagnose and treat disease of the eye but unable to perform invasive eye sx is an - CORRECT ANSWER optometrist by osha standards, what is the proper disposal method for a cotton ball with a drop of blood on it that has been used as a pressure dressing - CORRECT ANSWER dispose in a biohazard waste container collected by a licensed contaminated waste removal contractor attempting to change a patient's diagnosis code to allow a beneficiary coverage of a non covered service is - CORRECT ANSWER fraud the measurement of intraocular pressure is called - CORRECT ANSWER tonometry HIPAA act of 1996 includes which of the following areas - CORRECT ANSWER privacy of info, security of info, portability of info, administrative simplification which of the following telephone techniques will help create a positive image for the practive - CORRECT ANSWER Implement a two ring rule, acknowledge the caller by name, and minimize customer hold time the snellen acuity eye chart measure - CORRECT ANSWER visual acuity what is the proper course of action for addressing the potential loss of a patient's protected health info (phi) - CORRECT ANSWER review the patient's record to see if he/she signed a notice of privacy practices (NPP) droopy upper lid due to age, gravity, or a weak eye muscle - CORRECT ANSWER ptosis a growth of fleshy tissue on conjunctiva that may extend onto the cornea - CORRECT ANSWER pterygium separation of the retina from the back of the eye - CORRECT ANSWER retinal nearsightedness - CORRECT ANSWER myopia farsightedness - CORRECT ANSWER hyperopia inflammation of the cornea - CORRECT ANSWER keratitis diagnosis resulting from the removal of a cataract with the implantation of an intraocular lens - CORRECT ANSWER pseudophakia inflammation of the eyelid margins which may result incrusting of the lashes - CORRECT ANSWER blepharitis degeneration of the macula, resulting on the loss of central and reading vision - CORRECT ANSWER age related macular degeneration excessive eyelid skin that may impair a person's field of vision - CORRECT ANSWER dermaeochalasi the bony cavity in the skull that houses the globe, the extrocular muscles, the blood vessels, and the nerves - CORRECT ANSWER orbit transparent, curved tissue at the front of the eye - CORRECT ANSWER cornea area of the retina providing central, clear, detailed vision - CORRECT ANSWER macula muscles of this tissue control the amount of light to electric impulses which are transmitted to the brain - CORRECT ANSWER retina the thick, transparent substance that fills the center of the eye - CORRECT ANSWER vitreous the channel through which images are transmitted from the retina to the brain - CORRECT ANSWER visual pathway tiny opening on the nasal side of the upper and lower lids through which excess tears pass when. leaving the ye - CORRECT ANSWER puncta thick , hardened, nontransparent lens - CORRECT ANSWER cataract thin, transparent tissue covering the outer surface of the eye - CORRECT ANSWER conjunctiva an auto refractor is used to - CORRECT ANSWER provide a baseline measurement of refractive error successful receptionists - CORRECT ANSWER place a smile in one/s voice, are honest and sincere with all patients according to osha guidelines, what should be the first course of action for cleaning up a blood spill - CORRECT ANSWER put on gloves the procedure for reporting workplace misconduct that is perceived as harassment is outline in which of the following documents - CORRECT ANSWER the osha workplace violence fact sheet Which of the following is NOT an example of an activity that can negatively affect productivity: - CORRECT ANSWER . Being settled in and ready to work by the scheduled start of the shift The most professional employees: - CORRECT ANSWER Work to present their best selves and do their best work at all times. Err on the side of caution. Exercise good judgment. Which of the following represents the most professional way to spend a scheduled break time? - CORRECT ANSWER Quietly checking personal email on a smartphone in the break room When telling jokes in the workplace, the best policy is to: - CORRECT ANSWER None of these. Professionalism can be defined as: - CORRECT ANSWER An ongoing process. Proper break-room etiquette includes all of the following EXCEPT: - CORRECT ANSWER Leaving a thank-you note to let coworkers know when their food has been eaten without permission. The most professional response to an inquiry from a coworker about the nature of an employee's weekend plans is: - CORRECT ANSWER "I'm not sure yet, but I'm looking forward to it. What happens at happy hour with coworkers has no bearing on one's in-office professional reputation. - CORRECT ANSWER False As managers and owners are best positioned to reward employee professionalism, it's appropriate to treat them with more respect than what is shown to coworkers. - CORRECT ANSWER False Getting too little sleep on weekends can affect performance during the workweek. - CORRECT ANSWER True As it relates to punctuality, professional employees: - CORRECT ANSWER Strive to be settled in at work by the scheduled start of their shift. Honor return times from breaks and lunch outings. Do not start packing up to leave until their scheduled shift is fully completed. Which of the following aspects of personal appearance could negatively impact a professional reputation: - CORRECT ANSWER Dying hair a vibrant, unnatural color Which of the following is the most professional example of clear and concise communication? - CORRECT ANSWER "I appreciate the feedback and will take it into consideration." Which of the following is NOT a possible employee benefit to exercising professionalism? - CORRECT ANSWER The right to leave work early every day If a coworker is consistently late for work, the most professional employees will: - CORRECT ANSWER Continue to show up for work on time, or even a bit early. Which of the following best defines harassment? - CORRECT ANSWER Unlawful behavior Unwelcome conduct based on a protected class Who can be a harasser - CORRECT ANSWER . Management Patients Vendors Co-workers Which of the following is an example of psychological harassment? - CORRECT ANSWER Name calling and shaming an employee Which of the following is an example of sexual harassment? - CORRECT ANSWER Sending a sexually explicit video to a co-worker Correct Which of the following lists four types of harassment? - CORRECT ANSWER Quid Pro Quo, disability, color, national origin Employees have a responsibility to police their own actions and behaviors. - CORRECT ANSWER true When are jokes and stereotypes of a protected class appropriate? - CORRECT ANSWER Never Who should be trained on harassment policies? - CORRECT ANSWER Staff, management, providers, non-provider owners Which of the following describes how employers must handle harassment investigations? - CORRECT ANSWER Prompt, thorough, and impartial After notifying a co-worker that their behavior is not acceptable and asking them to stop, if the unwelcome behavior continues, who should the employee report the harassment to? - CORRECT ANSWER A manager Which of these is NOT a part of the LEARN acronym? - CORRECT ANSWER Repeat Which of these cultural competency levels represents the least effective level? - CORRECT ANSWER Cultural Destructiveness Who provided us with the quote: "We must become the change we want to see"? - CORRECT ANSWER Gandhi Which of these is a cultural competency derailing behavior? - CORRECT ANSWER Making assumptions about others How many Essential Elements of cultural competency are there? - CORRECT ANSWER 5 What is the best reason to work on raising your level of cultural diversity competence as a healthcare worker? - CORRECT ANSWER I will remove barriers to being more effective in delivering healthcare Which of these is not a secondary dimension of diversity? - CORRECT ANSWER age Which of these beliefs may represent a culturally diverse patient's historical health perspectives? - CORRECT ANSWER . The expressiveness of pain is unacceptable Being overweight is a sign of health and well-being Patients should not be told if they become terminally ill Which of these generational groups is the newest? - CORRECT ANSWER Generation Alpha Which of these generational differences in perspective traits is attributed to more than one generation? - CORRECT ANSWER Civic-minded This course is only the beginning to creating a safe and secure work environment; the rest is up to management. - CORRECT ANSWER False One of the first steps in creating an emergency action plan is to: - CORRECT ANSWER Sit down with management and staff to discuss the importance of putting an emergency action plan in place. Samples of emergency action plans can be found on the internet. Which organization has an EAP in PDF format that can be filled out online and saved to a computer? - CORRECT ANSWER The U.S. Department of Homeland Security (R) The Department of Homeland Security recommends three actions in the event of an active shooter. They are: - CORRECT ANSWER Evacuate, Hide Out, or Take Action The main difference between the emergency action plan and plan of action is that the emergency action plan is the written document organizing management and staff during workplace emergencies, whereas the plan of action is the motion or act of carrying out the EAP. - CORRECT ANSWER True The U.S. Department of Homeland Security developed an active shooter emergency action plan called: - CORRECT ANSWER Active Shooter: How to Respond After an active shooting incident is over, management must take over and: - CORRECT ANSWER Start the healing process An active shooter emergency action plan should include a detailed diagram of the overall office space including: - CORRECT ANSWER All of these choices Studies have shown that nearly ___________ American workers annually report being a victim of workplace violence. - CORRECT ANSWER 2 million When creating an office emergency action plan, the plan coordinator needs to reach out to local law enforcement agencies to - CORRECT ANSWER Get assistance in the development of the EAP.Inform them of the office layout and possible safe rooms in case of emergency. Which of the following is a technical safeguard requirement? - CORRECT ANSWER Installing and updating antivirus software and firewalls Under the HITECH Act, the Breach Notification Act requires notification to HHS OCR of the intentional or unintentional disclosure of PHI to unapproved entities on an annual basis only if the breach has affected more than 500 individuals. - CORRECT ANSWER false Patient names on a sign-in form are considered an intentional breach of - CORRECT ANSWER False Which of the following disclosures require signed permission from the individual whose PHI is being requested? - CORRECT ANSWER Information requested by an attorney without a subpoena If an individual or staff member has a complaint regarding the use of PHI, the individual must speak to which of the following professionals for the facility? - CORRECT ANSWER Privacy officer "Safe" computing includes which of the following? - CORRECT ANSWER Using email and the Internet ONLY as allowed by practice protocols What does HIPAA stand for? - CORRECT ANSWER Health Insurance Portability and Accountability A According to the HIPAA Omnibus Final Rule of 2013, the business associate of the covered entity (physician practice) is required to sign a Business Associate Agreement with which of the following? - CORRECT ANSWER Subcontractors of business associates According to regulations contained in the Omnibus Final Rule of 2013, a patient has the right to receive a copy of his or her medical record in an electronic format if the associated provider utilizes electronic health records. - CORRECT ANSWER True Which of the following is a physical safeguard requirement? - CORRECT ANSWER Developing and implementing policies and protocols for the use of all electronic devices containing protected health information Administrative safeguards include which of the following? - CORRECT ANSWER Designating a privacy officer Which of the following does Protected Health Information include? - CORRECT ANSWER Billing records, claims data, referral authorizations Entities covered under HIPAA are required to develop a Notice of Privacy Practices (NPP) and must make these available to individuals accessing services through the entity. - CORRECT ANSWER True Notice of Privacy Practices (NPP) must be updated in 2013 to include which of the following? - CORRECT ANSWER Patient's right to restrict disclosures of PHI to a health plan when the patient pays out of pocket and in full for the health care item or service Which of the following entities are covered under HIPAA? - CORRECT ANSWER Health care providers A lensometer is used to: - CORRECT ANSWER Measure the patient's current spectacle prescription. A visual field instrument is used to document abnormal defects in a patient's central and peripheral vision. - CORRECT ANSWER True A phaco instrument is used in what type of surgical procedure: - CORRECT ANSWER Cataract surgery. After the initial patient registration process is complete, the patient is asked to: - CORRECT ANSWER Have a seat in the patient reception area Once all clinical activities are done, the patient completes the check-out process, which includes: - CORRECT ANSWER Scheduling the next appointment. Payment for the eye exam. An A-Scan is a piece of ultrasound equipment used to: - CORRECT ANSWER Measure the length of the eye to assist in calculating the power of an intraocular lens for cataract surgery. An auto refractor is used to - CORRECT ANSWER Help determine the eyeglasses prescription An ambulatory surgery center is an outpatient facility that provides the ability to perform all types of eye care surgery, regardless of the nature of the procedure. - CORRECT ANSWER false The Snellen acuity chart is used to: - CORRECT ANSWER Measure visual acuity using various sizes of letters visible to the normal eye An optical finishing lab is a facility that is used to assemble patient's glasses. - CORRECT ANSWER true Which of the following lasers is used to perform refractive surgery: - CORRECT ANSWER Excimer Laser Refractive surgery services can be provided either in the doctor's office, in a separate refractive laser center, or in an ambulatory surgery center. - CORRECT ANSWER True To start the exam, an ophthalmic assistant or technician performs pre-testing in preparation for the physician's eye exam. - CORRECT ANSWER True The ancillary testing room is used for: - CORRECT ANSWER Diagnostic testing (A-Scan, B-Scan, and corneal topography). PACU is an abbreviation for: - CORRECT ANSWER Post anesthesia care unit. An auto refractor is used to: - CORRECT ANSWER Help determine the eyeglasses prescription A patient calling to schedule an appointment with symptoms of sudden vision loss can be scheduled at some time within a week. There is no urgency to scheduling the visit. - CORRECT ANSWER true HIPAA Privacy Standards must be applied when determining the information that can be shared in a phone call with the relative of a patient - CORRECT ANSWER True If a patient arrives for an appointment without a necessary insurance authorization, - CORRECT ANSWER An attempt is made to obtain the authorization, so that the patient can be seen Over the past several years, billing processes have become: - CORRECT ANSWER More reliant on automated processes. Payment receipts should be used: - CORRECT ANSWER To record all payments received from patients. In triaging a patient phone call, the person receiving the call may: - CORRECT ANSWER Schedule an appointment. Take a message. Refer to the billing department. Encounter forms are most commonly used to: - CORRECT ANSWER Record the diagnosis and procedural codes At the conclusion of each encounter, the patient: - CORRECT ANSWER . Should stop at the check-out desk to determine payment status. Patient's charts are prepared at the time the patient arrives for his/her appointment. - CORRECT ANSWER False Unless unusual circumstances dictate otherwise, patients with outstanding accounts should receive a statement - CORRECT ANSWER Monthly. In most cases, the practice's initial encounter with the patient is: - CORRECT ANSWER By telephone. The balance due on services rendered by the practice is known as Accounts Receivable (A/R). - CORRECT ANSWER True In spite of the topic, the overall tone of your email should always be: - CORRECT ANSWER All of the above Use of ________ makes it easier for recipients to skim content than having to read lengthy blocks of text. - CORRECT ANSWER . Bullets or numbered lists An important rule of email-writing etiquette is to avoid long-winded messages that contain extraneous information and irrelevant facts - CORRECT ANSWER True The fact that email is faster and easier than other communication options means we can put less thought into how we use it. - CORRECT ANSWER false Overuse of _______ can result in your email ending up at the bottom of your recipients' priority lists. - CORRECT ANSWER The "high importance" designation If you are going to fall victim to the current epidemic of bad email writing, you run the risk of gaining a professional reputation as someone who is: - CORRECT ANSWER All of the above. If you are listed in the "cc" field, generally you - CORRECT ANSWER Are not expected to reply. In general, every professional business email should have - CORRECT ANSWER All of the above Basic email success elements include: - CORRECT ANSWER All of the above Which of the following examples is NOT an appropriate, professional email salutation or greeting? - CORRECT ANSWER What's happening Which of the following are examples of topics better suited for a telephone call or a personal face- to-face conversation (as opposed to an email)? - CORRECT ANSWER All of the above A "bad" email can feature which of the following elements? - CORRECT ANSWER all of the above An email borders on being too long when it approaches this many words. - CORRECT ANSWER 200 A good subject line __________. - CORRECT ANSWER Delivers the most important information, without the recipient having to open the email.Reminds recipients about your request/question/proposal every time they glance at their inbox. Grabs attention and summarizes the email. Proofreading and editing your email before sending allows you to - CORRECT ANSWER all of the above Minor surgical procedures have a 90-day postoperative period and are most commonly performed in ambulatory surgery centers. - CORRECT ANSWER false An eye care provider licensed to diagnose and treat diseases of the eye and to perform eye surgery is an: - CORRECT ANSWER Ophthalmologist Major surgeries are most commonly performed in: - CORRECT ANSWER A certified surgical facility An eye care professional licensed to fabricate and dispense eyeglasses is an: - CORRECT ANSWER Optician Which of the following procedures is a common treatment for dry eyes? - CORRECT ANSWER Punctual Occlusion An eye care provider licensed to diagnose and treat diseases of the eye, but unable to perform invasive eye surgery is an: - CORRECT ANSWER Optometrist Devices prescribed to correct refractive errors are: - CORRECT ANSWER Glasses and Contact Lenses The most commonly performed eye surgery is: - CORRECT ANSWER Cataract Surger Instructions as to insertion, removal, and care of contact lenses are usually given by____________staff - CORRECT ANSWER Ancillary Office surgical suites, outpatient surgery centers, and hospital-based outpatient surgery centers are all types of surgical suites and facilities. - CORRECT ANSWER true HIPAA Privacy Standards must be applied when determining the information that can be shared in a phone call with the relative of a patient. - CORRECT ANSWER true Patient's charts are prepared at the time the patient arrives for his/her appointment. - CORRECT ANSWER false In most cases, the practice's initial encounter with the patient is: - CORRECT ANSWER by telephone It is not necessary to give your name if you have already said the practice name in the greeting: - CORRECT ANSWER False In the research study discussed, what percentage of the time did the practices actually send the information they promised to patients? - CORRECT ANSWER 30% When a caller inquires about a procedure the receptionist should: - CORRECT ANSWER Try to engage callers by asking if they have had any similar procedure before. Correct Most elective care focused practices answer the telephone within one to two rings: - CORRECT ANSWER true If a prospective patient isn't ready to schedule an appointment, it is important to: - CORRECT ANSWER Ask the prospective patient for contact information and offer to send information by asking for preference of home address or e-mail address. Inform the caller about upcoming events or educational seminars. Creating a "touch point" with a prospective caller means: - CORRECT ANSWER Having contact information so that a business can send additional information. It is important to establish a dialogue with prospective patients because: - CORRECT ANSWER all of the above It is important to do which of the following in order to increase the inquiry-to-appointment ratio: - CORRECT ANSWER all of the above When a caller asks a practice whether it performs a particular procedure, and the receptionist simply says, "Yes, we do," the next question likely will be, "How much is it?" - CORRECT ANSWER true What percentage of consultants would book appointments with practice they mystery shopped? - CORRECT ANSWER 57 percent Who provided us with the quote: "We must become the change we want to see"? - CORRECT ANSWER Gandhi